a nurse is assessing a client with pneumonia which of the following findings should the nurse expect
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PN ATI Capstone Pharmacology 1 Quiz

1. A nurse is assessing a client with pneumonia. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Increased respiratory rate. In pneumonia, the body tries to compensate for the reduced ability to oxygenate the blood by increasing the respiratory rate. This helps to improve oxygen exchange. Bradycardia (Choice A) is not typically associated with pneumonia, as an increased heart rate is more common due to the stress on the body. Decreased temperature (Choice C) is not a typical finding in pneumonia, as infections usually cause a fever. Elevated blood pressure (Choice D) is not a common finding in pneumonia unless there are complications such as sepsis.

2. A healthcare provider is assessing a client who has a long arm cast. Which of the following findings indicates a moderate complication when assessing for acute compartment syndrome?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Edema is a common sign of acute compartment syndrome, which is a medical emergency caused by increased pressure within a muscle compartment, requiring immediate intervention. Shortness of breath (Choice A) is more indicative of a respiratory issue rather than acute compartment syndrome. Petechiae (Choice B) are pinpoint, round spots that appear on the skin due to bleeding under the skin and are not typically associated with acute compartment syndrome. Change in mental status (Choice C) is more suggestive of neurological issues rather than acute compartment syndrome.

3. A nurse is caring for four clients. Which of the following client data should the nurse report to the provider?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: An absolute neutrophil count of 75/mm3 indicates severe neutropenia, which puts the client at high risk of infection and requires immediate intervention. Neutropenia increases the susceptibility to infections due to a significant decrease in neutrophils, which are essential for fighting off bacteria and other pathogens. Reporting this critical lab value promptly to the provider is essential to ensure appropriate interventions are initiated to prevent life-threatening infections. Choices A, B, and C do not present immediate life-threatening conditions that require urgent reporting to the provider.

4. A nurse is preparing to administer a dose of warfarin. Which of the following should the nurse do?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to check INR levels. Before administering warfarin, it is crucial to check the INR levels to ensure they are within the therapeutic range. This helps to prevent complications such as bleeding or clotting. Choice B, administering it with food, is incorrect as warfarin should typically be taken on an empty stomach. Choice C, monitoring blood glucose, is unrelated to the administration of warfarin. Choice D, assessing liver function, is important but not the immediate action required before administering warfarin.

5. A client is admitted for observation and has full range of motion. Which is the best manner to encourage the client to void?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Client Bathroom. Encouraging the client to use the bathroom is the best way to promote independence and privacy, maintaining normal function. In this case, since the client has full range of motion, using the client bathroom would be the most appropriate choice. Options A, B, and C (Urinal, Bedpan, Bedside Commode) are not the best choices as they may restrict the client's independence and privacy, which can impact their psychological well-being and normal voiding function.

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