Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is assessing a client with pneumonia. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

• A. Bradycardia
• B. Increased respiratory rate
• C. Decreased temperature
• D. Elevated blood pressure

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Increased respiratory rate. In pneumonia, the body tries to compensate for the reduced ability to oxygenate the blood by increasing the respiratory rate. This helps to improve oxygen exchange. Bradycardia (Choice A) is not typically associated with pneumonia, as an increased heart rate is more common due to the stress on the body. Decreased temperature (Choice C) is not a typical finding in pneumonia, as infections usually cause a fever. Elevated blood pressure (Choice D) is not a common finding in pneumonia unless there are complications such as sepsis.

2. A nurse is planning care to prevent complications in a client with immobility. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include?

• A. Massage lower extremities daily to prevent DVT
• B. Remove anti-embolism stockings for 3 hours each day
• C. Limit intake of foods high in calcium to prevent renal calculi
• D. Encourage the client to lie supine to prevent constipation

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because removing anti-embolism stockings for short periods prevents skin breakdown while ensuring that the stockings remain effective in promoting circulation. Choice A is incorrect because massaging lower extremities daily does not prevent DVT; instead, it may dislodge a clot. Choice C is incorrect as limiting intake of foods high in calcium does not prevent renal calculi; rather, it may help reduce the risk of kidney stones. Choice D is incorrect because encouraging the client to lie supine does not prevent constipation; instead, encouraging mobility and adequate fluid intake can help prevent constipation in immobile clients.

3. A client is being treated with thiazide diuretics. What should the nurse monitor regularly?

• A. Hyperkalemia
• B. Hypokalemia
• C. Hyponatremia
• D. Hypoglycemia

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Thiazide diuretics are known to cause hypokalemia by increasing potassium excretion in the urine. Therefore, the nurse should monitor the client for low potassium levels. Hyperkalemia (Choice A) is not typically associated with thiazide diuretics. Hyponatremia (Choice C) is more commonly linked with thiazide diuretics due to increased sodium excretion. Hypoglycemia (Choice D) is not a usual concern when a client is receiving thiazide diuretics.

4. A nurse is caring for a client in preterm labor who is receiving magnesium sulfate. Which of the following is an indication of magnesium toxicity?

• A. Blood glucose of 160 mg/dL
• B. Urine output of 20 mL/hour
• C. Systolic BP of 140 mm Hg
• D. Respiratory rate of 20/min

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Urine output of 20 mL/hour. Urine output below 30 mL/hour is a sign of magnesium toxicity due to the risk of accumulation in the body. Choices A, C, and D are not indicative of magnesium toxicity. Elevated blood glucose, systolic blood pressure, and normal respiratory rate are not specific signs of magnesium toxicity.

5. A nurse is reviewing the ABG results of a client with chronic emphysema. Which result suggests the need for further treatment?

• A. PaO2 level of 89 mm Hg
• B. PaCO2 level of 55 mm Hg
• C. HCO3 level of 25 mEq/L
• D. pH level of 7.37

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. A PaCO2 level of 55 mm Hg is elevated, indicating carbon dioxide retention, a common complication of emphysema that necessitates intervention. Elevated PaCO2 can lead to respiratory acidosis, reflecting inadequate ventilation. Choices A, C, and D are within normal ranges. A PaO2 level of 89 mm Hg is acceptable. An HCO3 level of 25 mEq/L falls within the normal range, suggesting adequate compensation. A pH level of 7.37 is also within the normal range, indicating the client's acid-base balance is maintained.

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