ATI LPN
PN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment 2020 B
1. A healthcare provider is preparing to administer a dose of levothyroxine. Which of the following should the healthcare provider do?
- A. Give it with food
- B. Assess the patient's heart rate
- C. Administer it in the evening
- D. Give it with calcium supplements
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is to assess the patient's heart rate. Levothyroxine is a thyroid hormone replacement medication that can increase metabolism. One of the potential side effects of levothyroxine is tachycardia (rapid heart rate). Therefore, it is essential for the healthcare provider to assess the patient's heart rate before administering the medication to monitor for any signs of tachycardia. Giving levothyroxine with food may affect its absorption, so it is typically recommended to administer it on an empty stomach. Administering it in the evening is not necessary unless specifically prescribed by the healthcare provider, and giving it with calcium supplements can interfere with the absorption of levothyroxine.
2. A client is prescribed spironolactone. Which of the following dietary instructions should the nurse include?
- A. Increase potassium-rich foods
- B. Limit sodium intake
- C. Avoid potassium supplements
- D. Increase protein intake
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is to advise the client to avoid potassium supplements. Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic, meaning it helps the body retain potassium. Adding potassium supplements on top of this medication can lead to hyperkalemia, an elevated level of potassium in the blood, which can be dangerous. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because increasing potassium-rich foods, limiting sodium intake, and increasing protein intake are not specifically related to the dietary considerations when taking spironolactone.
3. While reviewing the medical record of a client with unstable angina, which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
- A. BP 106/62 mm Hg, Temp 38°C (100.4°F), HR 112/min, Resp rate 26/min, urine output 90 mL/hr
- B. Skin is cool and moist with pallor
- C. Bilateral breath sounds with crackles heard at bases of lungs
- D. Creatinine kinase 100 units/L, C-reactive protein 0.8 mg/dL, Myoglobin 88 mcg/L
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. The nurse should report these vital signs to the provider immediately as they indicate increased temperature, tachycardia, and tachypnea, which are signs of possible infection or systemic inflammatory response. This could exacerbate the client's unstable angina and needs prompt evaluation. Choices B, C, and D are not as urgent as the vital signs in option A and do not directly indicate a worsening condition in the context of unstable angina.
4. A nurse is caring for a newborn in the nursery following a circumcision. The newborn's grandparent, who does not have an identification bracelet, requests to take the newborn to his mother's room. What action should the nurse take?
- A. Notify security.
- B. Respectfully deny the grandparent’s request.
- C. Contact the mother for verification.
- D. Escort the grandparent and newborn to the room.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take is to respectfully deny the grandparent's request. In healthcare settings, strict security protocols are in place to ensure the safety of newborns. Only individuals with proper identification bracelets are allowed to transport newborns to prevent unauthorized individuals from taking them. Contacting the mother for verification would be time-consuming and may not be feasible immediately. Escorting the grandparent and newborn without proper identification would violate security protocols and compromise the newborn's safety. Notifying security should be done only if there is a threat or concern for safety, which is not the case in this scenario. Therefore, the best course of action is for the nurse to respectfully deny the grandparent's request to uphold the safety and security measures in place.
5. A nurse is providing dietary teaching for a client who has chronic cholecystitis. Which of the following diets should the nurse recommend?
- A. Low potassium diet
- B. High fiber diet
- C. Low fat diet
- D. Low sodium diet
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Low fat diet.' A client with chronic cholecystitis should follow a low-fat diet to decrease the frequency of biliary colic episodes. Fats can trigger the release of cholecystokinin, which stimulates the gallbladder to contract, potentially causing pain in individuals with cholecystitis. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. A low potassium diet is prescribed for individuals with specific kidney conditions or on certain medications. A high fiber diet is beneficial for conditions like constipation, diverticulosis, or to promote general bowel health. A low sodium diet is often recommended for conditions like hypertension or heart failure to reduce fluid retention.
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