Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is caring for a client receiving oxytocin IV for labor augmentation. The client’s contractions are occurring every 45 seconds and lasting 90 seconds. What action should the nurse take?

• A. Discontinue the oxytocin infusion
• B. Increase the oxytocin infusion
• C. Decrease the oxytocin infusion
• D. Maintain the oxytocin infusion

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In this scenario, the client is experiencing uterine hyperstimulation with contractions every 45 seconds lasting 90 seconds. This frequency and duration of contractions can lead to fetal distress. The appropriate nursing action is to discontinue the oxytocin infusion immediately to prevent complications. Increasing or maintaining the oxytocin infusion would exacerbate the situation, while decreasing it may not be sufficient to address the issue effectively.

2. A charge nurse is planning care for a group of patients on a med-surg unit. What task should the nurse delegate to an assistive personnel?

• A. Measure hourly urinary output for the postoperative patient.
• B. Administer medications to stable patients.
• C. Reinforce patient education.
• D. Initiate a care plan for a new patient.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because assistive personnel can be assigned to measure and document urinary output, a routine task within their scope of practice. Administering medications (choice B) requires a higher level of training and should be done by licensed nurses. Reinforcing patient education (choice C) involves providing information and ensuring patient understanding, which is typically done by licensed healthcare providers. Initiating a care plan (choice D) involves critical thinking and assessment skills, which are beyond the scope of practice for assistive personnel.

3. A healthcare provider is among the first responders to a mass-casualty incident and does not know what type of personal protective equipment (PPE) is needed. Which of the following actions should the healthcare provider take?

• A. Use basic gloves and a mask.
• B. Choose the highest level of protection equipment available.
• C. Use only respiratory protection.
• D. Ask a colleague for advice.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In situations where the type of hazard is unknown, the healthcare provider should choose the highest level of protection equipment available. This helps ensure adequate protection against any potential hazards that may be present. Using only basic gloves and a mask (Choice A) may not provide sufficient protection if the hazard is more severe. Opting for respiratory protection only (Choice C) may leave other areas of the body vulnerable to exposure. While asking a colleague for advice (Choice D) is good practice in general, in urgent situations like mass-casualty incidents with unknown hazards, it is crucial to prioritize immediate protection by selecting the highest level of PPE.

4. A nurse is caring for a client prescribed montelukast. Which of the following should the nurse include in teaching related to this medication?

• A. Advise the client to take the medication once daily at bedtime.
• B. This medication is for acute management of asthma.
• C. Avoid dairy products while taking this medication.
• D. If the client forgets to take the medication for a few days, he can double up on doses to catch up.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to advise the client to take the medication once daily at bedtime. Montelukast, a leukotriene modifier, is used for long-term therapy of asthma in adults and children, as well as to prevent exercise-induced bronchospasm. It should be taken once daily in the evening for optimal effectiveness. Choice B is incorrect because montelukast is not for acute management but for long-term therapy. Choice C is incorrect as there is no need to avoid dairy products while taking montelukast. Choice D is incorrect and potentially harmful advice; clients should never double up on doses if they forget to take a medication.

5. A healthcare provider is assessing a client who is receiving heparin therapy for deep vein thrombosis (DVT). Which of the following laboratory values should the provider monitor to evaluate the therapeutic effect of the heparin?

• A. Platelet count
• B. Partial thromboplastin time (PTT)
• C. Prothrombin time (PT)
• D. Bleeding time

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The Partial Thromboplastin Time (PTT) is the correct laboratory value to monitor heparin therapy. PTT measures the time it takes for blood to clot and is specifically used to evaluate the effectiveness of anticoagulation therapy such as heparin. Monitoring the PTT helps ensure that the heparin dose is within the therapeutic range. Platelet count, Prothrombin time (PT), and Bleeding time are not specific laboratory values for monitoring the therapeutic effect of heparin therapy. Platelet count is more indicative of platelet function, PT is used to monitor warfarin therapy, and Bleeding time assesses platelet function rather than the effect of heparin therapy.

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