a nurse is caring for a client who has severe preeclampsia and is receiving magnesium sulfate intravenously which action should the nurse take when to
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Nursing Elites

ATI LPN

PN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment Form A

1. A client with severe preeclampsia is receiving magnesium sulfate intravenously. Which action should the nurse take when toxicity occurs?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When toxicity from magnesium sulfate occurs, the nurse should administer calcium gluconate IV as it is the antidote for magnesium sulfate toxicity. Positioning the client supine may not address the toxicity issue. Administering dextrose 5% is not the appropriate intervention for magnesium sulfate toxicity. Methylergonovine is used to manage postpartum hemorrhage and is not indicated for magnesium sulfate toxicity.

2. A nurse is preparing to feed a newly admitted client with dysphagia. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Sitting at or below the client’s eye level is important when feeding a client with dysphagia. This position allows the nurse to closely observe the client for any signs of difficulty with swallowing, which can help prevent aspiration. Instructing the client to lift their chin when swallowing (choice A) is not recommended for clients with dysphagia as it can increase the risk of aspiration. Discouraging the client from coughing during feedings (choice B) is also not correct, as coughing may be a protective mechanism to prevent aspiration. Talking with the client during feedings (choice D) may distract the client and interfere with their ability to focus on swallowing safely.

3. A nurse is teaching a client about the use of gabapentin. Which of the following should be included?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'It can cause drowsiness.' Gabapentin is known to cause drowsiness, and clients should be warned about this side effect. Choice B is incorrect because gabapentin, like any medication, can have side effects. Choice C is incorrect because although gabapentin is used for pain management, it is not classified as a pain reliever. Choice D is incorrect because gabapentin should be taken as prescribed by the healthcare provider, and specific instructions regarding food intake should be provided based on individual needs.

4. A healthcare provider is preparing to administer an influenza vaccine to an adult client. Which of the following is a contraindication?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Client is allergic to eggs. The influenza vaccine is contraindicated in individuals with an allergy to eggs because some influenza vaccines are produced using egg-based processes. Choices A, C, and D are not contraindications for administering the influenza vaccine. A low-grade fever, recent surgery, and corticosteroid therapy are not contraindications for receiving the influenza vaccine.

5. A healthcare provider is assessing a client who has a long arm cast. Which of the following findings indicates a moderate complication when assessing for acute compartment syndrome?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Edema is a common sign of acute compartment syndrome, which is a medical emergency caused by increased pressure within a muscle compartment, requiring immediate intervention. Shortness of breath (Choice A) is more indicative of a respiratory issue rather than acute compartment syndrome. Petechiae (Choice B) are pinpoint, round spots that appear on the skin due to bleeding under the skin and are not typically associated with acute compartment syndrome. Change in mental status (Choice C) is more suggestive of neurological issues rather than acute compartment syndrome.

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