Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is planning to administer diltiazem via IV bolus to a client who has atrial fibrillation. Which of the following findings is a contraindication to the administration of diltiazem?

• A. Hypotension
• B. Tachycardia
• C. Decreased level of consciousness
• D. History of diuretic use

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hypotension. Diltiazem, a calcium channel blocker, can cause hypotension. Administering diltiazem to a client with hypotension can further lower their blood pressure, leading to adverse effects like dizziness and syncope. Tachycardia (Choice B) is actually a common indication for diltiazem use, as it helps slow down the heart rate in conditions like atrial fibrillation. Decreased level of consciousness (Choice C) may require evaluation but is not a direct contraindication to diltiazem administration. History of diuretic use (Choice D) is not a contraindication to diltiazem, as the two medications can often be safely used together.

2. A client is prescribed warfarin for anticoagulation. Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse monitor?

• A. PT and INR
• B. Blood glucose levels
• C. Complete blood count (CBC)
• D. Platelet count

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: PT and INR. Warfarin is an anticoagulant that affects the clotting mechanism by inhibiting vitamin K-dependent clotting factors. The PT (Prothrombin Time) and INR (International Normalized Ratio) are specific laboratory values used to monitor the effectiveness and safety of warfarin therapy. These values help healthcare providers adjust the warfarin dosage to maintain the desired level of anticoagulation. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because blood glucose levels, complete blood count (CBC), and platelet count are not directly monitored to assess the effects of warfarin therapy.

3. A client is being taught how to use a diaphragm for contraception. Which of the following client statements indicate an understanding of the teaching?

• A. I will leave the diaphragm in place for at least 6 hours after intercourse.
• B. I will remove the diaphragm by catching the rim below the dome with my finger.
• C. I will not apply mineral oil on the diaphragm.
• D. I will place 2 teaspoons of spermicide on the inside of the diaphragm before inserting it.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. The client should place spermicide inside the diaphragm before insertion to enhance contraceptive effectiveness. It is recommended to leave the diaphragm in place for at least 6 hours after intercourse, but not more than 24 hours. Choice A is incorrect because the diaphragm should be left in place for at least 6 hours, not 4 hours. Choice B is incorrect as the diaphragm should be removed by hooking the rim below the dome, not above. Choice C is incorrect because mineral oil should not be used with the diaphragm as it can weaken the latex.

4. A nurse is caring for a client who sprained his ankle 12 hours ago. Which of the following provider prescriptions should the nurse question?

• A. Elevate the affected extremity on two pillows
• B. Apply heat to the affected extremity for 45 minutes
• C. Wrap the extremity with a compression dressing
• D. Assess sensation, movement, and pulse every 4 hours

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The nurse should question the prescription to apply heat to the affected extremity for 45 minutes. Heat should not be applied in the first 48 hours after an acute injury, as it can increase swelling. Cold therapy is more appropriate initially. Choices A, C, and D are appropriate actions in the care of a client with a sprained ankle. Elevating the affected extremity helps reduce swelling, wrapping it with a compression dressing provides support, and assessing sensation, movement, and pulse every 4 hours is important to monitor for complications.

5. A nurse is assessing a client for signs of heart failure. Which of the following findings should the nurse monitor?

• A. Decreased heart rate
• B. Peripheral edema
• C. Increased energy levels
• D. Hyperglycemia

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Peripheral edema. Peripheral edema, the accumulation of fluid causing swelling in the extremities, is a classic sign of heart failure due to fluid overload. This occurs because the heart's reduced pumping efficiency leads to fluid backup in the circulatory system. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Decreased heart rate is not typically associated with heart failure; instead, tachycardia or an increased heart rate may be observed. Increased energy levels are not an expected finding in heart failure, as this condition often causes fatigue and weakness. Hyperglycemia is not a direct sign of heart failure; however, it can be present in individuals with uncontrolled diabetes or as a result of certain treatments, but it is not a specific indicator of heart failure.

Similar Questions