ATI LPN
PN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment 2020 A
1. A nurse is planning to administer diltiazem via IV bolus to a client who has atrial fibrillation. Which of the following findings is a contraindication to the administration of diltiazem?
- A. Hypotension
- B. Tachycardia
- C. Decreased level of consciousness
- D. History of diuretic use
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hypotension. Diltiazem, a calcium channel blocker, can cause hypotension. Administering diltiazem to a client with hypotension can further lower their blood pressure, leading to adverse effects like dizziness and syncope. Tachycardia (Choice B) is actually a common indication for diltiazem use, as it helps slow down the heart rate in conditions like atrial fibrillation. Decreased level of consciousness (Choice C) may require evaluation but is not a direct contraindication to diltiazem administration. History of diuretic use (Choice D) is not a contraindication to diltiazem, as the two medications can often be safely used together.
2. A healthcare provider is reviewing the laboratory data of a client with diabetes mellitus. Which of the following laboratory tests is an indicator of long-term disease management?
- A. Postprandial blood glucose
- B. Glycosylated hemoglobin (HbA1c)
- C. Glucose tolerance test
- D. Fasting blood glucose
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Glycosylated hemoglobin (HbA1c). The glycosylated hemoglobin test measures average blood glucose levels over the past 2-3 months, providing an indication of long-term glycemic control in clients with diabetes. Choice A, postprandial blood glucose, reflects blood sugar levels after a meal and does not provide a long-term view. Choice C, glucose tolerance test, evaluates the body's ability to process sugar but does not offer a continuous assessment like the HbA1c test. Choice D, fasting blood glucose, measures blood sugar levels after a period of fasting, which is more indicative of immediate glycemic status rather than long-term management.
3. When reinforcing teaching about self-care with a patient who has pelvic inflammatory disease and does not speak English, what action by the nurse is appropriate?
- A. Provide written instructions in English.
- B. Use family members as translators.
- C. Seek assistance from a facility-approved interpreter.
- D. Use online translation tools.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: When communicating with a patient who does not speak English, it is crucial to seek assistance from a facility-approved interpreter. Using family members as translators can lead to inaccuracies, breaches in confidentiality, and discomfort for the patient. Online translation tools may not provide accurate or context-specific translations, which can result in misunderstandings. Providing written instructions in English would not be effective if the patient does not understand the language.
4. A nurse is planning care for a client who has a latex allergy and is scheduled for surgery. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
- A. Apply tape to the client’s skin before surgery.
- B. Ensure the surgical suite is well-ventilated.
- C. Wrap monitoring cords with stockinette.
- D. Schedule the surgery at the end of the day.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct action the nurse should take is to wrap monitoring cords with stockinette. This measure ensures that the latex in the cords does not come into contact with the client’s skin, reducing the risk of an allergic reaction. Applying tape to the client’s skin before surgery (Choice A) may expose the client to latex if the tape contains latex. Ensuring the surgical suite is well-ventilated (Choice B) is important for overall safety but does not specifically address the client's latex allergy. Scheduling the surgery at the end of the day (Choice D) is not directly related to preventing latex exposure and allergic reactions.
5. A nurse is assessing a newborn who is 10 hours old. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
- A. Axillary temperature 36.5°C (97.7°F)
- B. Nasal flaring
- C. Heart rate 158/min
- D. One void since birth
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Nasal flaring can indicate respiratory distress in a newborn, which is a critical finding requiring immediate attention. This may suggest an issue with breathing or lung function. Reporting nasal flaring promptly allows the provider to assess and intervene to ensure the newborn's respiratory status is stable. Choices A, C, and D are within normal parameters for a 10-hour-old newborn and do not indicate an immediate concern. An axillary temperature of 36.5°C (97.7°F) is within the normal range for a newborn. A heart rate of 158/min is typical for a newborn, and one void since birth is an expected finding at this early stage.
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