ATI LPN
PN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment A
1. A nurse is caring for a client who has schizophrenia. Which of the following assessment findings should the nurse expect?
- A. Decreased level of consciousness
- B. Inability to identify common objects
- C. Poor problem-solving ability
- D. Preoccupation with somatic disturbances
Correct answer: C
Rationale: In clients with schizophrenia, poor problem-solving ability is a common assessment finding due to impaired cognitive function associated with the disorder. This impairment can manifest as difficulties in decision-making and problem-solving. Choice A, decreased level of consciousness, is not a typical finding in schizophrenia. Choice B, inability to identify common objects, is more indicative of conditions like dementia rather than schizophrenia. Choice D, preoccupation with somatic disturbances, is more characteristic of somatic symptom disorder rather than schizophrenia.
2. A nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client who is starting to take carbidopa/levodopa to treat Parkinson’s disease. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include in the teaching?
- A. “This medication can cause your urine to turn a dark color.”
- B. “Expect immediate relief after taking this medication.”
- C. “Take the medication with a high-protein food.”
- D. “Skip a dose of the medication if you experience dizziness.”
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct instruction the nurse should provide is that the medication can cause the client's urine to turn a dark color, which is a harmless effect of carbidopa/levodopa. This is due to the metabolites of levodopa. Immediate relief is not expected after taking the medication because it may take weeks to months to achieve the full therapeutic effect. Taking the medication with a high-protein food is not recommended as protein can interfere with the absorption of levodopa. Skipping a dose of the medication if the client experiences dizziness is incorrect as dizziness may be a side effect of the medication, and doses should not be skipped without consulting a healthcare provider.
3. A nurse is planning care for a client who has a chest tube. Which of the following actions should the nurse take to ensure proper functioning of the chest tube?
- A. Clamp the chest tube intermittently.
- B. Keep the drainage system below chest level.
- C. Empty the drainage chamber every 4 hours.
- D. Apply sterile gauze around the insertion site daily.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: To ensure proper functioning of a chest tube, the nurse should keep the drainage system below chest level. This position allows for proper drainage by gravity and prevents backflow into the pleural space. Clamping the chest tube intermittently can lead to a buildup of pressure and should be avoided. Emptying the drainage chamber every 4 hours is important but not directly related to maintaining the chest tube's function. Applying sterile gauze around the insertion site daily is essential for infection prevention but does not specifically ensure the proper functioning of the chest tube.
4. A client with schizophrenia is experiencing auditory hallucinations. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?
- A. Encourage the client to listen to music
- B. Ask the client what the voices are saying
- C. Provide the client with a distraction
- D. Administer an antipsychotic medication
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Asking the client what the voices are saying is the priority action as it helps assess the content of the hallucinations. This assessment is crucial to determine if the client is at risk of harm to themselves or others. Encouraging the client to listen to music or providing a distraction may not address the underlying issues related to the hallucinations. Administering antipsychotic medication, although important, should come after a thorough assessment of the hallucinations to ensure the right medication and dosage are provided.
5. A healthcare provider is assessing a client who has a heart rate of 40/min. The client is diaphoretic and has chest pain. Which of the following medications should the healthcare provider plan to administer?
- A. Lidocaine
- B. Adenosine
- C. Atropine
- D. Verapamil
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The client presents with bradycardia, diaphoresis, and chest pain, indicating reduced cardiac output. Atropine is the appropriate choice as it increases heart rate by blocking the parasympathetic nervous system. Lidocaine is used for ventricular arrhythmias, Adenosine for supraventricular tachycardia, and Verapamil for controlling heart rate in atrial fibrillation or atrial flutter. These medications are not suitable for the client's current presentation.
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