ATI LPN
PN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment Form A
1. A nurse is planning care for four clients. Which client is the highest priority?
- A. Client with dry, black eschar on the heel
- B. Client wearing an arm cast and reporting numb fingers
- C. Client with reddened skin around the coccyx
- D. Client with frequent incontinence
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because numb fingers indicate neurovascular compromise, which can lead to serious complications if not addressed promptly. The priority in this situation is to assess and address any circulation issues affecting the extremity. Choices A, C, and D are of concern but not as immediate as neurovascular compromise, which requires urgent attention to prevent further complications.
2. A nurse is planning an education session for a client who has type 1 diabetes mellitus. Which of the following should the nurse plan to include when teaching the client to monitor for hypoglycemia?
- A. Diaphoresis
- B. Polyuria
- C. Abdominal pain
- D. Thirst
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Diaphoresis. Diaphoresis (sweating) is a classic symptom of hypoglycemia, along with shakiness, confusion, and irritability. These signs help indicate low blood sugar levels. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Polyuria (excessive urination), abdominal pain, and thirst are not typical symptoms associated with hypoglycemia. It is crucial for clients with type 1 diabetes mellitus to recognize the early signs of hypoglycemia to take prompt corrective action.
3. A nurse is assessing a client who has a femur fracture and is in skeletal traction. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
- A. Clear fluid drainage from the pin sites
- B. Client reporting intermittent muscle spasms
- C. Client reporting severe pain despite receiving analgesics
- D. The traction weights are hanging freely
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. Severe pain that is not relieved by analgesics may indicate neurovascular compromise or other complications and requires immediate attention by the provider. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because clear fluid drainage from the pin sites is expected in skeletal traction, intermittent muscle spasms are common in this situation, and traction weights hanging freely indicate proper traction alignment.
4. A nurse is caring for a laboring client and notes that the fetal heart rate begins to decelerate after the contraction has started. The lowest point of deceleration occurs after the peak of the contraction. What is the priority nursing action?
- A. Administer oxygen
- B. Change the client's position
- C. Increase IV fluids
- D. Call the healthcare provider
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Late decelerations are caused by uteroplacental insufficiency, indicating that the fetus is not receiving adequate oxygen during contractions. This is an emergency that requires prompt intervention. Changing the client's position helps improve placental blood flow, reducing stress on the fetus. Administering oxygen may be necessary if changing position does not resolve the decelerations. Increasing IV fluids is not the priority in this situation as it won't directly address the cause of late decelerations. Calling the healthcare provider should be done after immediate interventions like changing the client's position have been implemented and assessed.
5. A client with a closed head injury has their eyes open when pressure is applied to the nail beds, and they exhibit adduction of the arms with flexion of the elbows and wrists. The client also moans with stimulation. What is the client's Glasgow Coma Score?
- A. 4
- B. 7 (comatose)
- C. 9
- D. 10
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The client's Glasgow Coma Score is 7. This is calculated by assigning 2 points for eye-opening to pain, 2 points for incomprehensible sounds, and 3 points for flexion posturing. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Choice A (4) would be the score if the client displayed decerebrate posturing instead of flexion posturing. Choice C (9) would be the score if the client exhibited eye-opening to speech, confused speech, and decorticate posturing. Choice D (10) would be the score if the client showed eye-opening spontaneously, oriented speech, and obeyed commands, which is not the case here.
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