ATI LPN
PN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment Form A
1. A nurse is planning care for four clients. Which client is the highest priority?
- A. Client with dry, black eschar on the heel
- B. Client wearing an arm cast and reporting numb fingers
- C. Client with reddened skin around the coccyx
- D. Client with frequent incontinence
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because numb fingers indicate neurovascular compromise, which can lead to serious complications if not addressed promptly. The priority in this situation is to assess and address any circulation issues affecting the extremity. Choices A, C, and D are of concern but not as immediate as neurovascular compromise, which requires urgent attention to prevent further complications.
2. A client with a permanent spinal cord injury is scheduled for discharge. Which of the following client statements indicates that the client is coping effectively?
- A. “I would like to play wheelchair basketball. When I get stronger, I think I’ll look for a league.”
- B. “I’m glad I’ll only be in this wheelchair temporarily. I can’t wait to get back to running.”
- C. “I’m so upset that this happened to me. What did I do to deserve this, and why am I not getting better?”
- D. “I feel like I’ll never be able to do anything that I want to again. All I am is a burden to my family.”
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Choice A is the correct answer. This statement demonstrates effective coping as the client is showing acceptance of their disability and planning for the future with realistic goals. Choice B reflects denial of the permanent disability by stating that they will only be in a wheelchair temporarily. Choice C shows distress and a lack of acceptance by questioning why the injury happened and why they are not improving. Choice D indicates feelings of hopelessness and being a burden, which are not signs of effective coping.
3. A nurse is performing a focused assessment for a client who has dysrhythmias. What indicates ineffective cardiac contractions?
- A. Increased blood pressure
- B. Pulse deficit
- C. Normal heart rate
- D. Elevated oxygen saturation
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Pulse deficit. A pulse deficit is a significant finding in clients with dysrhythmias, indicating ineffective cardiac contractions. Pulse deficit occurs when there is a difference between the apical and radial pulses, suggesting that not all heart contractions are strong enough to produce a pulse that can be felt peripherally. Increased blood pressure (choice A) may occur due to various factors and is not a direct indicator of ineffective cardiac contractions. Similarly, a normal heart rate (choice C) and elevated oxygen saturation (choice D) do not specifically point towards ineffective cardiac contractions; they can be present in individuals with dysrhythmias but do not directly indicate ineffective cardiac contractions.
4. A nurse is preparing to perform closed intermittent bladder irrigation for a client following a transurethral resection of the prostate (TURP). Which of the following actions is appropriate by the nurse?
- A. Aspirate the irrigation solution from the bladder
- B. Insert the tip of the irrigation syringe into the catheter opening
- C. Apply sterile gloves
- D. Open the flow clamp to the irrigating fluid infusion tubing
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take before performing a closed intermittent bladder irrigation is to apply sterile gloves. Sterile gloves help maintain asepsis, reduce the risk of infection, and ensure patient safety during the procedure. Aspirating the irrigation solution from the bladder (Choice A) is not a standard step in closed intermittent bladder irrigation. Inserting the tip of the irrigation syringe into the catheter opening (Choice B) can introduce contaminants into the system. Opening the flow clamp to the irrigating fluid infusion tubing (Choice D) should only be done after ensuring all equipment is ready and the nurse is gloved to maintain sterility.
5. A nurse is preparing to administer furosemide 4 mg/kg/day PO divided into 2 equal doses daily to a toddler who weighs 22 lb. How many mg should the nurse administer per dose?
- A. 10 mg
- B. 20 mg
- C. 30 mg
- D. 40 mg
Correct answer: B
Rationale: To calculate the correct dose, first, convert the toddler's weight from pounds to kilograms: 22 lb / 2.2 lb/kg = 10 kg. Next, multiply the weight in kilograms by the dosage: 4 mg/kg x 10 kg = 40 mg/day. Since the total daily dose is divided into 2 equal doses, each dose would be 20 mg. Therefore, the correct answer is 20 mg. Choice A (10 mg) is incorrect because it does not account for the correct weight-based dosage. Choice C (30 mg) and Choice D (40 mg) are incorrect as they do not correctly calculate the dose based on the weight of the toddler and the prescribed dosage per kg.
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