ATI LPN
LPN Fundamentals Practice Questions
1. A client has major fecal incontinence and reports irritation in the perianal area. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?
- A. Apply a fecal collection system
- B. Apply a barrier cream
- C. Cleanse and dry the area
- D. Check the client's perineum
Correct answer: D
Rationale: When a client with major fecal incontinence reports irritation in the perianal area, the nurse's initial action should be to assess the client's perineum to gather more information. By checking the perineum, the nurse can identify the extent and nature of the irritation, allowing for appropriate interventions to be initiated. This assessment is crucial in developing a comprehensive care plan and addressing the client's immediate needs effectively. Applying the nursing process priority-setting framework helps in planning care and prioritizing nursing actions, making assessment the initial step in this scenario. Applying a fecal collection system (choice A) would be premature without assessing the perineal area first. Similarly, applying a barrier cream (choice B) or cleansing and drying the area (choice C) should follow the assessment to ensure appropriate interventions are chosen based on the assessment findings.
2. A client is being assessed for dehydration. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?
- A. Elevated blood pressure
- B. Increased skin turgor
- C. Dark-colored urine
- D. Bradypnea
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Dark-colored urine is a common sign of dehydration as the urine becomes concentrated. Dehydration leads to reduced fluid intake or excessive fluid loss, causing the urine to be darker in color due to increased urine concentration. Elevated blood pressure (Choice A) is not typically associated with dehydration; instead, dehydration often leads to low blood pressure. Increased skin turgor (Choice B) is actually a sign of good hydration, not dehydration. Bradypnea (Choice D), which refers to abnormally slow breathing, is not a common finding in dehydration.
3. A client with meningitis is being assessed by a healthcare provider. Which of the following findings should the provider expect?
- A. Negative Brudzinski’s sign.
- B. Flaccid neck muscles.
- C. Petechial rash.
- D. Hypoactive deep tendon reflexes.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: A petechial rash is a characteristic finding in clients with meningitis, indicating small, pinpoint hemorrhages under the skin. This rash results from the infection's impact on the blood vessels. Petechiae are important to recognize as they can help differentiate meningitis from other conditions with similar symptoms. Brudzinski’s sign, neck stiffness, and positive Kernig’s sign are more common physical exam findings in meningitis. Flaccid neck muscles and hypoactive deep tendon reflexes are not typically associated with meningitis.
4. A client with chronic kidney disease is being educated by a nurse about dietary management. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?
- A. I should limit my intake of protein to prevent overworking my kidneys.
- B. I should increase my intake of potassium-rich foods.
- C. I should increase my intake of phosphorus-rich foods.
- D. I should increase my intake of calcium-rich foods.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. In chronic kidney disease, limiting protein intake is crucial to prevent overworking the kidneys. Excessive protein consumption can lead to the accumulation of metabolic waste products that the kidneys struggle to process, worsening kidney function. Therefore, by recognizing the need to restrict protein intake, the client demonstrates an understanding of the dietary management required for their condition. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Increasing intake of potassium-rich foods (Choice B) is not recommended in chronic kidney disease as it can lead to hyperkalemia. Similarly, increasing intake of phosphorus-rich foods (Choice C) is not advised because impaired kidneys struggle to excrete phosphorus, leading to elevated levels in the blood. Lastly, increasing intake of calcium-rich foods (Choice D) may not be necessary unless there is a specific deficiency or requirement, as calcium balance is often disrupted in chronic kidney disease.
5. When caring for a client with a prescription for wound irrigation, which action should the nurse take?
- A. Use a 10-mL syringe with an 18-gauge needle.
- B. Cleanse the wound from the center outward.
- C. Apply a wet-to-dry dressing.
- D. Pack the wound tightly with gauze.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: When caring for a client with a prescription for wound irrigation, the nurse should cleanse the wound from the center outward. This technique helps prevent the introduction of microorganisms into the wound, reducing the risk of contamination and promoting effective wound healing. By using a circular motion from the cleanest area to the least clean areas, debris and bacteria are moved away from the wound site, decreasing the chances of infection.
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