Nursing Elites

1. A healthcare professional is planning care for a client who has a mental health disorder. Which of the following actions should the professional include as a psychobiological intervention?

• A. Assist the client with systematic desensitization therapy
• B. Teach the client appropriate coping mechanisms
• C. Assess the client for comorbid health conditions
• D. Monitor the client for adverse effects of medications

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Monitoring the client for adverse effects of medications is considered a psychobiological intervention because it involves the physiological aspect of mental health treatment. It focuses on the biological impact of medications on the client's mental health condition, emphasizing the interplay between biological and psychological factors in managing mental health disorders. Choices A, B, and C are not psychobiological interventions. Choice A, systematic desensitization therapy, is a psychological intervention aimed at reducing anxiety by gradually exposing the client to feared stimuli. Choice B, teaching appropriate coping mechanisms, is a psychosocial intervention focusing on behavioral strategies to manage stress. Choice C, assessing for comorbid health conditions, pertains to identifying other medical issues that may coexist with the mental health disorder but does not directly address the biological effects of medications on mental health.

2. When a patient with schizophrenia is taking haloperidol, what is a priority assessment for the nurse?

• A. Assessing for signs of tardive dyskinesia
• B. Monitoring for signs of neuroleptic malignant syndrome
• C. Checking for signs of depression
• D. Monitoring for changes in appetite

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Monitoring for signs of neuroleptic malignant syndrome is crucial for patients taking haloperidol. Neuroleptic malignant syndrome is a rare but serious side effect that can occur with antipsychotic medications like haloperidol. It presents with symptoms such as high fever, unstable blood pressure, confusion, muscle rigidity, and autonomic dysfunction. Early detection and intervention are essential to prevent serious complications.

3. Which medication is commonly used to treat obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD)?

• A. Lorazepam
• B. Fluoxetine
• C. Lithium
• D. Haloperidol

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is Fluoxetine (Choice B). Fluoxetine, an SSRI (Selective Serotonin Reuptake Inhibitor), is commonly used in the treatment of obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD). SSRIs like Fluoxetine are considered first-line medications for managing OCD symptoms by helping to increase serotonin levels in the brain, which plays a role in mood regulation and anxiety reduction. Choice A, Lorazepam, is a benzodiazepine primarily used for anxiety disorders but is not a first-line treatment for OCD. Choice C, Lithium, is typically used in conditions like bipolar disorder, not OCD. Choice D, Haloperidol, is an antipsychotic medication and is not commonly used to treat OCD.

4. When developing a care plan for a patient with generalized anxiety disorder (GAD), which short-term goal is most appropriate?

• A. The patient will experience no episodes of anxiety within the next week.
• B. The patient will learn and practice relaxation techniques.
• C. The patient will avoid all anxiety-provoking situations.
• D. The patient will be medication-free within a month.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Option B, 'The patient will learn and practice relaxation techniques,' is the most appropriate short-term goal for managing generalized anxiety disorder. Teaching relaxation techniques can help the patient develop coping mechanisms and reduce anxiety levels in the immediate future, making it a realistic and beneficial goal. Options A and C are not feasible in the short term as complete elimination of anxiety episodes or avoidance of all anxiety-provoking situations may not be achievable or practical within a week. Option D is not a suitable short-term goal as it overlooks the potential need for medication in managing generalized anxiety disorder.

5. Which assessment finding best supports dissociative fugue?

• A. The patient states that he cannot remember important information about himself.
• B. The patient is found to be wandering in a park and cannot remember his name or where he lives.
• C. The patient reports feeling as if she is outside her body and observing herself from a distance.
• D. The patient has a sudden onset of symptoms after experiencing a traumatic event.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The key feature of dissociative fugue is sudden, unexpected travel away from home during which the individual may not be able to recall their identity or past events. Choice B best reflects this by describing a scenario where the patient is found wandering in a park and unable to remember their name or residence, which aligns with the characteristic dissociative amnesia seen in dissociative fugue. Choices A, C, and D do not directly support dissociative fugue. Choice A refers more to general dissociative amnesia, Choice C describes depersonalization/derealization disorder, and Choice D suggests acute stress reaction rather than dissociative fugue.

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