Nursing Elites

1. A healthcare professional is planning care for a client who has a mental health disorder. Which of the following actions should the professional include as a psychobiological intervention?

• A. Assist the client with systematic desensitization therapy
• B. Teach the client appropriate coping mechanisms
• C. Assess the client for comorbid health conditions
• D. Monitor the client for adverse effects of medications

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Monitoring the client for adverse effects of medications is considered a psychobiological intervention because it involves the physiological aspect of mental health treatment. It focuses on the biological impact of medications on the client's mental health condition, emphasizing the interplay between biological and psychological factors in managing mental health disorders. Choices A, B, and C are not psychobiological interventions. Choice A, systematic desensitization therapy, is a psychological intervention aimed at reducing anxiety by gradually exposing the client to feared stimuli. Choice B, teaching appropriate coping mechanisms, is a psychosocial intervention focusing on behavioral strategies to manage stress. Choice C, assessing for comorbid health conditions, pertains to identifying other medical issues that may coexist with the mental health disorder but does not directly address the biological effects of medications on mental health.

2. What is the primary benefit of using cognitive-behavioral therapy (CBT) for treating anxiety disorders?

• A. It focuses on long-term use of medications.
• B. It helps patients understand and change their thought patterns.
• C. It primarily addresses childhood traumas.
• D. It encourages patients to avoid anxiety-provoking situations.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The primary benefit of using cognitive-behavioral therapy (CBT) for treating anxiety disorders is that it helps patients understand and change their thought patterns. By addressing maladaptive thought processes and behaviors, CBT can effectively reduce anxiety symptoms and improve coping mechanisms. This approach empowers individuals to develop healthier responses to anxiety triggers, leading to long-lasting benefits beyond solely relying on medications or avoiding anxiety-provoking situations. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because CBT does not primarily focus on long-term use of medications, addressing childhood traumas, or encouraging avoidance of anxiety-provoking situations. While medications may be used in conjunction with CBT, the main focus of CBT is on cognitive restructuring and behavioral interventions to alleviate anxiety symptoms.

3. A client is discussing free associations as a therapeutic tool with a nurse. Which of the following client statements indicates an understanding of this technique?

• A. “I will write down my dreams as soon as I wake up.”
• B. “I might begin to associate my therapist with important people in my life.”
• C. “I can learn to express myself in a nonaggressive manner.”
• D. “I should say the first thing that comes to my mind.”

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Free association is a psychoanalytic technique where the client is encouraged to say the first thing that comes to their mind without censoring or filtering. This technique helps uncover unconscious thoughts and emotions. Choice D, “I should say the first thing that comes to my mind,” indicates an understanding of free association as it aligns with the principle of allowing thoughts to flow freely without inhibition. Choices A, B, and C do not reflect an understanding of free association and its purpose, making them incorrect. A, focusing on writing down dreams, does not relate to the immediate expression of thoughts. B, associating the therapist with important people, and C, learning to express oneself nonaggressively, do not capture the essence of free association as a technique for exploring unconscious processes.

4. When a patient with schizophrenia is taking haloperidol, what is a priority assessment for the nurse?

• A. Assessing for signs of tardive dyskinesia
• B. Monitoring for signs of neuroleptic malignant syndrome
• C. Checking for signs of depression
• D. Monitoring for changes in appetite

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Monitoring for signs of neuroleptic malignant syndrome is crucial for patients taking haloperidol. Neuroleptic malignant syndrome is a rare but serious side effect that can occur with antipsychotic medications like haloperidol. It presents with symptoms such as high fever, unstable blood pressure, confusion, muscle rigidity, and autonomic dysfunction. Early detection and intervention are essential to prevent serious complications.

5. Which symptom is most commonly associated with social anxiety disorder?

• A. Fear of speaking in public
• B. Recurrent, intrusive thoughts
• C. Flashbacks of traumatic events
• D. Persistent low mood

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Fear of speaking in public is a hallmark symptom of social anxiety disorder. Individuals with social anxiety disorder often experience intense fear or anxiety about social situations where they may be scrutinized or judged by others, such as speaking in public. This fear can significantly impact their daily functioning and quality of life, making it a key feature in diagnosing social anxiety disorder. Recurrent, intrusive thoughts, flashbacks of traumatic events, and persistent low mood are more commonly associated with other mental health conditions, such as obsessive-compulsive disorder, post-traumatic stress disorder, and depression, respectively. Therefore, choice A is the correct answer as it aligns with the characteristic symptom of social anxiety disorder.

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