Nursing Elites

1. What is the most effective initial intervention for a patient experiencing a panic attack?

• A. Encourage the patient to discuss their feelings.
• B. Provide a quiet environment and stay with the patient.
• C. Administer prescribed medication immediately.
• D. Teach the patient relaxation techniques.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: During a panic attack, the most effective initial intervention is to provide a quiet environment and stay with the patient. This approach can help the patient feel safe and supported, which may help reduce the intensity and duration of the panic attack. Encouraging the patient to discuss their feelings may not be helpful during the acute phase of a panic attack as it can be overwhelming. Administering prescribed medication immediately is not typically the first-line intervention for panic attacks. Teaching relaxation techniques is beneficial in the long term but may not be the most effective immediate intervention during a panic attack.

2. A 33-year-old female diagnosed with bipolar I disorder has been functioning well on lithium for 11 months. At her most recent checkup, the psychiatric nurse practitioner states, ‘You are ready to enter the maintenance therapy stage, so at this time I am going to adjust your dosage by prescribing:'

• A. A higher dosage
• B. Once-a-week dosing
• C. A lower dosage
• D. A different drug

Correct answer: C

Rationale: As the patient transitions to maintenance therapy, the typical approach involves decreasing the dosage to a lower level. This adjustment is made to find the minimum effective dose needed for symptom control while reducing the potential side effects associated with long-term use. Choosing a higher dosage (A) would not align with the goal of maintenance therapy, as it may increase the risk of adverse effects. Once-a-week dosing (B) is not a common adjustment for lithium, which is usually prescribed daily for bipolar disorder. Switching to a different drug (D) is typically considered if the current medication is ineffective or intolerable, not as a routine step in transitioning to maintenance therapy.

3. After Natasha's husband passed away two months ago, she has been overwhelmed with grief. When Natasha is subsequently diagnosed with major depressive disorder, her daughter, Nadia, makes which true statement?

• A. Depression often begins after a major loss. Losing dad was a major loss.
• B. Bereavement and depression are the same problem.
• C. Mourning is pathological and not normal behavior.
• D. Antidepressant medications will not help this type of depression.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: It is common for major depressive disorder to be triggered by significant life events, such as the sudden loss of a loved one. Therefore, Nadia's statement that 'Depression often begins after a major loss' is correct. Bereavement and major depressive disorder are related but distinct conditions, and while mourning can be intense, it is generally considered a normal response to loss. Antidepressant medications can be beneficial in treating depression, including cases triggered by a significant loss.

4. Which patient behavior is consistent with therapeutic communication?

• A. Offering your opinion when asked to provide support.
• B. Summarizing the essence of the patient’s comments in your own words.
• C. Avoiding interrupting periods of silence to allow the patient space to think.
• D. Providing positive reinforcement when the patient expresses themselves.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Summarizing the essence of the patient’s comments in your own words is a key component of therapeutic communication. This behavior demonstrates active listening, ensures understanding of the patient's message, and encourages further discussion. By summarizing, you show the patient that you are engaged and interested, which helps them feel heard and valued. Offering your opinion (choice A) may bias the patient's thoughts and feelings, interrupting periods of silence (choice C) may prevent the patient from processing their thoughts, and providing positive reinforcement (choice D) may not always be appropriate or necessary in therapeutic communication.

5. A patient with social anxiety disorder is starting cognitive-behavioral therapy (CBT). Which statement by the nurse best explains the purpose of this therapy?

• A. CBT will help you understand and change your thought patterns.
• B. CBT will focus on exploring your childhood experiences.
• C. CBT will teach you relaxation techniques to use in social situations.
• D. CBT will help you avoid situations that cause anxiety.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Cognitive-behavioral therapy (CBT) is a structured, short-term psychotherapy that aims to help patients identify and change negative thought patterns and behaviors associated with anxiety. By understanding and altering these patterns, individuals can learn to manage and alleviate their symptoms effectively. Choice A is the correct answer as it accurately describes the purpose of CBT for social anxiety disorder. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. B is incorrect because while childhood experiences may be explored, the primary focus of CBT is on thought patterns and behaviors in the present. C is incorrect because although relaxation techniques may be a component of CBT, the primary goal is not just to teach relaxation but to address underlying cognitive and behavioral patterns. D is incorrect because the goal of CBT is not avoidance but rather to confront and manage anxiety-provoking situations.

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