Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is performing vision testing for a client following a head injury. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as a problem with pupil accommodation?

• A. Pupils constrict when shifting gaze from near to far
• B. Pupils constrict when shifting gaze from far to near
• C. Lack of change in pupil size when shifting gaze from near to far
• D. Lack of change in pupil size when shifting gaze from far to near

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Pupil accommodation problems are indicated by the lack of change in size when shifting gaze from far to near. The correct answer is D because in pupil accommodation, the pupils should constrict when shifting gaze from far to near in order to adjust for near vision. Choices A and B describe normal responses of pupil constriction when shifting gaze, which do not indicate a problem. Choice C is incorrect as it describes a normal response of pupil size change when shifting gaze from near to far.

2. What are the key nursing interventions for a patient with a tracheostomy?

• A. Maintain a patent airway and monitor for infection
• B. Suction airway secretions and provide humidified oxygen
• C. Educate patient on self-care and tracheostomy cleaning
• D. Change tracheostomy ties daily

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to maintain a patent airway and monitor for infection. These are crucial nursing interventions for patients with tracheostomies to ensure adequate oxygenation and prevent complications. Suctioning airway secretions and providing humidified oxygen can be part of the care plan but are not as essential as maintaining a patent airway. Educating the patient on self-care and tracheostomy cleaning is important for long-term management but is not as immediate as ensuring a patent airway and monitoring for infection. Changing tracheostomy ties daily is a specific task related to tracheostomy care but is not as critical as ensuring the airway is clear and infection-free.

3. A nurse is instructing a group of nursing students about the responsibilities involved with organ donation and procurement. When the nurse explains that all clients waiting for a kidney transplant have to meet the same qualifications, the students should understand that this aspect of care delivery is an example of which ethical principle?

• A. Fidelity
• B. Autonomy
• C. Justice
• D. Non-maleficence

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Justice. Justice in healthcare ethics refers to fairness and equality in the distribution of resources and treatments. In this scenario, ensuring that all clients waiting for a kidney transplant meet the same qualifications demonstrates the ethical principle of justice by providing equal opportunities for all candidates. Choice A, fidelity, pertains to keeping promises and being faithful to agreements, which is not the primary ethical principle at play in this situation. Autonomy, choice B, relates to respecting a patient's right to make their own decisions, which is not directly applicable in the context of organ transplant qualifications. Non-maleficence, choice D, refers to the principle of doing no harm, which is important but not the primary ethical principle highlighted in this scenario.

4. A nurse is teaching a client who has chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) about breathing exercises. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Use abdominal breathing during physical activity
• B. Inhale quickly and deeply through the nose
• C. Use pursed-lip breathing during physical activity
• D. Breathe quickly and deeply during exercise

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Use pursed-lip breathing during physical activity.' Pursed-lip breathing is a beneficial technique for clients with COPD as it helps improve airflow by keeping the airways open longer. Choice A is incorrect as abdominal breathing may not be as effective in COPD as pursed-lip breathing. Choice B, inhaling quickly and deeply through the nose, is not recommended as it can lead to hyperventilation. Choice D, breathing quickly and deeply during exercise, is also not suitable for clients with COPD as it can cause increased shortness of breath.

5. A client with heart failure is receiving furosemide. Which of the following assessment findings indicates that the medication is effective?

• A. Elevated blood pressure.
• B. Absence of adventitious breath sounds.
• C. Weight gain of 1.4 kg (3 lb) in 24 hr.
• D. Decreased urine output.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The absence of adventitious breath sounds indicates that furosemide is effective in managing heart failure. Adventitious breath sounds such as crackles indicate fluid accumulation in the lungs, a common complication of heart failure. Therefore, the absence of these abnormal sounds suggests that furosemide is effectively reducing fluid overload. Elevated blood pressure (choice A) is not a desired outcome in heart failure management. Weight gain (choice C) and decreased urine output (choice D) are signs of fluid retention and ineffective diuresis, indicating that furosemide is not working effectively.

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