Nursing Elites

1. A client who is to undergo an exercise stress test is being taught by a nurse. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?

• A. I should eat a large meal 2 hours before the test
• B. I should avoid drinking water before the test
• C. I should stop taking my blood pressure medication
• D. I should report any chest pain during the test

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: 'I should report any chest pain during the test.' This statement indicates an understanding of the teaching because reporting chest pain during an exercise stress test is crucial as it may signify cardiac distress. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Eating a large meal 2 hours before the test is not recommended as it may affect the results. Avoiding drinking water before the test is also not advisable as staying hydrated is important. Stopping blood pressure medication without medical advice can be dangerous, especially before a stress test.

2. A charge nurse is discussing the responsibility of nurses caring for clients who have C. difficile. Which of the following information should the nurse include in the teaching?

• A. Assign the client to a room with a negative air-flow system
• B. Use alcohol-based hand sanitizer when leaving the client's room
• C. Clean contaminated surfaces in the client's room with a phenol solution
• D. Have family members wear a gown and gloves when visiting

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because having family members wear a gown and gloves when visiting clients with C. difficile is crucial to prevent the transmission of the infection. Options A, B, and C are incorrect because assigning the client to a room with a negative air-flow system, using alcohol-based hand sanitizer, and cleaning contaminated surfaces with a phenol solution are not specific measures for preventing the spread of C. difficile.

3. A client is receiving phenytoin for management of grand mal seizures and has a new prescription for isoniazid and rifampin. Which of the following should the nurse conclude if the client develops ataxia and incoordination?

• A. The client is experiencing an adverse reaction to rifampin.
• B. The client's seizure disorder is no longer under control.
• C. The client is showing evidence of phenytoin toxicity.
• D. The client is having adverse effects due to combination antimicrobial therapy.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Ataxia and incoordination are signs of phenytoin toxicity rather than adverse reactions to rifampin or isoniazid. These symptoms indicate that the client is experiencing an adverse effect of phenytoin, requiring a dose adjustment. Choice A is incorrect because rifampin is not typically associated with ataxia and incoordination. Choice B is incorrect as the development of ataxia and incoordination does not necessarily mean the seizure disorder is no longer under control. Choice D is incorrect as the symptoms are more indicative of phenytoin toxicity rather than adverse effects of combination antimicrobial therapy.

4. What is the proper technique for measuring a patient's blood pressure?

• A. Place the cuff at heart level and listen for Korotkoff sounds
• B. Ensure the patient is in a seated position and inflate the cuff to 180 mmHg
• C. Use a manual sphygmomanometer and measure blood pressure on both arms
• D. Monitor pulse rate and apply pressure to the brachial artery

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct technique for measuring blood pressure involves placing the cuff at heart level to ensure accurate readings. Listening for Korotkoff sounds helps determine the systolic and diastolic pressures. Choice B is incorrect as inflating the cuff to 180 mmHg is excessive and can lead to inaccurate readings. Choice C is incorrect as it is unnecessary to measure blood pressure on both arms unless there is a specific medical reason to do so. Choice D is incorrect as monitoring pulse rate and applying pressure to the brachial artery are not part of the standard blood pressure measurement technique.

5. A healthcare provider is caring for a client with a pressure ulcer and needs to review the client's medical history. Which of the following findings is expected?

• A. A Braden scale score of 20
• B. An albumin level of 3 g/dL
• C. A hemoglobin level of 13 g/dL
• D. A Norton scale score of 18

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A serum albumin level of 3 g/dL is indicative of poor nutrition, a common factor in the development of pressure ulcers. The Braden scale assesses the risk of developing pressure ulcers but does not reflect the client's medical history. Hemoglobin level is more related to oxygen-carrying capacity rather than pressure ulcer development. The Norton scale evaluates risk for developing pressure ulcers but is not typically part of a client's medical history.

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