ATI LPN
ATI PN Comprehensive Predictor 2023 Quizlet
1. What are the key differences between hypoglycemia and hyperglycemia?
- A. Hypoglycemia: Sweating, trembling; Hyperglycemia: Frequent urination, thirst
- B. Hypoglycemia: Increased thirst; Hyperglycemia: Sweating, confusion
- C. Hypoglycemia: Increased appetite; Hyperglycemia: Blurred vision
- D. Hypoglycemia: Dizziness; Hyperglycemia: Low blood pressure
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Hypoglycemia typically presents with sweating and trembling, while hyperglycemia is characterized by frequent urination and thirst. Therefore, the correct key differences between hypoglycemia and hyperglycemia are that hypoglycemia includes symptoms like sweating and trembling, while hyperglycemia involves symptoms such as frequent urination and thirst. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not accurately represent the characteristic symptoms of hypoglycemia and hyperglycemia, as stated in the question.
2. What is the correct procedure for inserting a nasogastric (NG) tube?
- A. Measure the tube and insert with lubrication
- B. Insert with lubrication and no measurement
- C. Insert without lubrication and secure it
- D. Insert with lubrication and check placement
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct procedure for inserting a nasogastric (NG) tube involves measuring the tube to ensure the appropriate length for insertion and using lubrication to reduce discomfort and aid in smooth insertion. Choice B is incorrect as measuring the tube is essential for proper placement. Choice C is incorrect as lubrication helps in easing the insertion process. Choice D is incorrect as checking the placement comes after insertion and should not be done simultaneously with the insertion process.
3. A client is receiving phenytoin for management of grand mal seizures and has a new prescription for isoniazid and rifampin. Which of the following should the nurse conclude if the client develops ataxia and incoordination?
- A. The client is experiencing an adverse reaction to rifampin.
- B. The client's seizure disorder is no longer under control.
- C. The client is showing evidence of phenytoin toxicity.
- D. The client is having adverse effects due to combination antimicrobial therapy.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Ataxia and incoordination are signs of phenytoin toxicity rather than adverse reactions to rifampin or isoniazid. These symptoms indicate that the client is experiencing an adverse effect of phenytoin, requiring a dose adjustment. Choice A is incorrect because rifampin is not typically associated with ataxia and incoordination. Choice B is incorrect as the development of ataxia and incoordination does not necessarily mean the seizure disorder is no longer under control. Choice D is incorrect as the symptoms are more indicative of phenytoin toxicity rather than adverse effects of combination antimicrobial therapy.
4. Which of the following is a realistic short-term goal to be accomplished in 2 to 3 days for a client with delirium?
- A. Explain the experience of having delirium
- B. Resume a normal sleep-wake cycle
- C. Regain orientation to time and place
- D. Establish normal bowel and bladder function
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Regaining orientation to time and place is a realistic short-term goal for clients with delirium. It helps the individual become aware of their surroundings and current situation, aiding in reducing confusion and disorientation. Choice A is incorrect because the goal is focused on the client's understanding, not on explaining the experience of delirium. Choice B, resuming a normal sleep-wake cycle, may take longer than 2 to 3 days to achieve and is not directly related to regaining orientation. Choice D, establishing normal bowel and bladder function, is important but may not be a short-term goal specifically related to delirium.
5. A nurse is preparing to apply a transdermal nicotine patch for a client. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
- A. Shave hairy areas of skin prior to application.
- B. Wear gloves to apply the patch to the client's skin.
- C. Apply the patch within 1 hr of removing it from the protective pouch.
- D. Remove the previous patch and place it in a tissue.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is to wear gloves when applying the transdermal nicotine patch to prevent the nurse from absorbing nicotine through the skin. Choice A is incorrect because shaving hairy areas of skin is not necessary for applying a transdermal patch. Choice C is incorrect as transdermal patches should be applied immediately after removal from the protective pouch, not necessarily within 1 hour. Choice D is incorrect because the previous patch should be disposed of properly following institutional guidelines, not placed in a tissue.
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