Nursing Elites

1. A client has developed phlebitis at the IV site. What is the next step the nurse should take?

• A. Administer an anti-inflammatory medication
• B. Discontinue the IV and notify the provider
• C. Apply a cold compress over the IV site
• D. Increase the IV flow rate to prevent dehydration

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When a client develops phlebitis at the IV site, the nurse's immediate action should be to discontinue the IV and notify the healthcare provider. Phlebitis is inflammation of the vein, and leaving the IV in place can lead to complications such as infection or thrombosis. Administering an anti-inflammatory medication (choice A) may not address the root cause and delay the necessary intervention. Applying a cold compress (choice C) may provide temporary relief but does not address the need to remove the source of inflammation. Increasing the IV flow rate (choice D) is contraindicated as it can exacerbate the phlebitis by causing more irritation to the vein.

2. A client is given morphine 6 mg IV push for postoperative pain. Following administration of this drug, the nurse observes the following: pulse 68, respirations 8, BP 100/68, client sleeping quietly. Which of the following nursing actions is MOST appropriate?

• A. Allow the client to sleep undisturbed
• B. Administer oxygen via facemask or nasal prongs
• C. Administer naloxone (Narcan)
• D. Place epinephrine 1:1,000 at the bedside

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is to administer naloxone (Narcan). The client's vital signs indicate opioid-induced respiratory depression, which is a potential side effect of morphine. Naloxone is used to reverse the effects of opioids, particularly to restore normal respiratory function. Administering oxygen alone (Choice B) may not address the underlying cause of respiratory depression. Allowing the client to sleep undisturbed (Choice A) is inappropriate when signs of respiratory depression are present. Epinephrine (Choice D) is not indicated in this situation and is not used to reverse opioid effects.

3. A charge nurse in a long-term care facility notices an assistive personnel's (AP) repeated failure to provide oral care for clients. Which of the following actions should the charge nurse take?

• A. Ignore the behavior
• B. Reassign the AP
• C. Report the behavior to the manager
• D. Discuss this behavior with the AP while reinforcing expectations

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When a charge nurse observes repeated failure in a staff member's performance, it is essential to address the issue directly. Choice D is the correct answer as it involves discussing the behavior with the assistive personnel (AP) while reinforcing expectations. This approach helps in clarifying the expected standards, setting accountability, and providing an opportunity for improvement. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Ignoring the behavior (Choice A) does not address the problem and can lead to continued substandard care. Reassigning the AP (Choice B) may not solve the issue and can potentially transfer the problem to another area. Reporting the behavior to the manager (Choice C) without directly addressing it with the AP first may not promote a constructive approach to resolving the issue.

4. A nurse is reviewing the medical record of a client with dementia. Which of the following findings should the nurse address first?

• A. Psychosocial stressors
• B. Restlessness and agitation
• C. Frequent wandering at night
• D. Urinary incontinence

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In clients with dementia, restlessness and agitation are important symptoms that the nurse should address first. These symptoms can indicate underlying issues such as pain, discomfort, or unmet needs, and addressing them promptly can prevent complications. Psychosocial stressors may contribute to the client's condition but should not be the initial priority. Frequent wandering at night and urinary incontinence are also common in dementia but do not pose immediate risks compared to restlessness and agitation.

5. A healthcare provider is reviewing the medical record of a client who is scheduled for an abdominal paracentesis. Which of the following actions should the healthcare provider take to prepare the client for this procedure?

• A. Assist the client to void
• B. Instruct the client to hold their breath
• C. Place the client in a lateral recumbent position
• D. Prepare to administer a sedative

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Assisting the client to void before a paracentesis is essential to reduce the risk of bladder injury during the procedure. Voiding helps empty the bladder, preventing accidental puncture during the insertion of the needle. Instructing the client to hold their breath is incorrect and can increase the risk of complications. Placing the client in a lateral recumbent position is not directly related to bladder safety during a paracentesis. Preparing to administer a sedative is not a standard preparation for this procedure and is not aimed at preventing bladder injury.

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