Nursing Elites

1. During a vaginal exam on a client in labor who reports severe pressure and pain in the lower back, a nurse notes that the fetal head is in a posterior position. Which of the following is the best nonpharmacological intervention for the nurse to perform to relieve the client's discomfort?

• A. Back rub
• B. Counter-pressure
• C. Playing music
• D. Foot massage

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In cases where the fetus is in a posterior position causing severe pressure and pain in the lower back during labor, applying counter-pressure is the most effective nonpharmacological intervention. Counter-pressure helps lift the fetal head off the spinal nerve, offering relief to the client. This technique is evidence-based and recommended to alleviate discomfort associated with a posterior fetal position. Choices A, C, and D are not as effective in this situation. While a back rub or playing music may provide some comfort, they do not directly address the issue caused by the fetal head's position. Similarly, a foot massage may offer relaxation but may not significantly relieve the specific discomfort arising from the posterior fetal position and the associated lower back pain.

2. A client at 28 weeks of gestation received terbutaline. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

• A. Fetal heart rate 100/min
• B. Weakened uterine contractions
• C. Enhanced production of fetal lung surfactant
• D. Maternal blood glucose 63 mg/dL

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Terbutaline is a tocolytic medication that works by relaxing the uterine muscles, leading to weakened uterine contractions. This effect helps to prevent preterm labor. Therefore, the nurse should expect weakened uterine contractions in a client who has received terbutaline at 28 weeks of gestation. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Terbutaline administration would not directly affect the fetal heart rate, enhance fetal lung surfactant production, or cause maternal hypoglycemia.

3. A client who is at 42 weeks gestation and in labor asks the nurse what to expect because the baby is postmature. Which of the following statements should the nurse make?

• A. Your baby will have excess baby fat.
• B. Your baby will have flat areola without breast buds.
• C. Your baby's heels will easily move to his ears.
• D. Your baby's skin will have a leathery appearance.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: 'Your baby's skin will have a leathery appearance.' Postmature infants, born after 42 weeks of gestation, may have a leathery appearance of the skin due to prolonged exposure to amniotic fluid. This occurs as the protective vernix caseosa is shed, and the skin loses its protective covering, leading to a wrinkled and dry appearance. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Excess baby fat is not a typical characteristic of postmature infants. Flat areola without breast buds and the ability of the baby's heels to easily move to his ears are not associated with postmaturity.

4. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer prophylactic eye ointment to a newborn to prevent ophthalmia neonatorum. Which of the following medications should the healthcare professional anticipate administering?

• A. Ofloxacin
• B. Nystatin
• C. Erythromycin
• D. Ceftriaxone

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Erythromycin eye ointment is the medication of choice for preventing ophthalmia neonatorum, an eye infection in newborns caused by exposure to gonorrhea or chlamydia during birth. Erythromycin helps prevent the transmission of these bacteria from the mother to the baby during delivery, protecting the newborn's eyes from potential infection. Ofloxacin, Nystatin, and Ceftriaxone are not indicated for preventing ophthalmia neonatorum. Ofloxacin is a fluoroquinolone antibiotic used for treating eye infections in adults, Nystatin is an antifungal medication used for fungal infections, and Ceftriaxone is a cephalosporin antibiotic used for various bacterial infections, but not for preventing ophthalmia neonatorum.

5. A client in active labor at 39 weeks of gestation is receiving continuous IV oxytocin and has early decelerations in the FHR on the monitor tracing. What action should the nurse take?

• A. Discontinue the oxytocin infusion.
• B. Continue monitoring the client.
• C. Request that the provider assess the client.
• D. Increase the infusion rate of the maintenance IV fluid.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Early decelerations in the FHR are benign and are typically caused by fetal head compression during contractions. In this case, with the client at 39 weeks of gestation and on oxytocin, it is important for the nurse to continue monitoring the client. Early decelerations do not require intervention as they are a normal response to certain stimuli and do not indicate fetal distress. Discontinuing the oxytocin infusion (Choice A) is not necessary as early decelerations are not related to oxytocin administration. Requesting the provider to assess the client (Choice C) is not needed for early decelerations as they are a normal finding. Increasing the infusion rate of the maintenance IV fluid (Choice D) is not indicated and would not address the early decelerations. Therefore, the appropriate action is to continue monitoring the client and reassess as needed.

Similar Questions