Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is performing a vaginal exam on a client who is in active labor. The nurse notes the umbilical cord protruding through the cervix. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Administer oxytocin to the client via intravenous infusion
• B. Apply oxygen at 2 L/min via nasal cannula
• C. Prepare for insertion of an intrauterine pressure catheter
• D. Assist the client into the knee-chest position

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The nurse should assist the client into the knee-chest position to relieve pressure on the umbilical cord. This position helps to prevent cord compression and improves fetal oxygenation. Administering oxytocin (Choice A) could worsen the situation by increasing contractions and potentially compressing the umbilical cord. Applying oxygen (Choice B) is not the priority in this emergency situation. Preparing for insertion of an intrauterine pressure catheter (Choice C) is not appropriate as the immediate concern is relieving pressure on the umbilical cord.

2. A client is prescribed omeprazole. Which of the following should the nurse monitor?

• A. Liver function
• B. Magnesium levels
• C. Blood glucose
• D. Hemoglobin levels

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Omeprazole can cause hypomagnesemia, a condition characterized by low magnesium levels in the blood. Monitoring magnesium levels is crucial to detect and address this potential adverse effect. Liver function (Choice A) is not typically affected by omeprazole. Blood glucose (Choice C) and hemoglobin levels (Choice D) are not directly impacted by omeprazole administration. Therefore, magnesium levels (Choice B) are the most appropriate parameter to monitor in a client prescribed omeprazole.

3. A nurse is assessing a client who has a history of atrial fibrillation and is receiving warfarin. Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse monitor to determine the effectiveness of the warfarin?

• A. Platelet count
• B. International normalized ratio (INR)
• C. Bleeding time
• D. Partial thromboplastin time (PTT)

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: International normalized ratio (INR). The INR is used to monitor the effectiveness of warfarin therapy. A higher INR indicates a longer time it takes for the blood to clot, which is desirable in patients receiving warfarin to prevent blood clots. Platelet count (Choice A) assesses the number of platelets in the blood and is not directly related to warfarin therapy. Bleeding time (Choice C) evaluates the time it takes for a person to stop bleeding after a standardized wound, but it is not specific to monitoring warfarin effectiveness. Partial thromboplastin time (PTT) (Choice D) is more commonly used to monitor heparin therapy, not warfarin.

4. A nurse is caring for a client who has been prescribed furosemide. Which of the following foods should the nurse encourage the client to include in their diet?

• A. Table salt
• B. Egg yolks
• C. White wine
• D. Oranges

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Furosemide is a potassium-wasting diuretic, so clients should consume potassium-rich foods like oranges to prevent hypokalemia. Oranges are a good source of potassium. Table salt, egg yolks, and white wine do not provide significant amounts of potassium and are not beneficial for a client taking furosemide.

5. A nurse is assessing a newborn following a vaginal delivery. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. Vernix caseosa
• B. Head circumference of 34 cm
• C. Jaundice at 24 hours of age
• D. Respiratory rate of 50/min

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Jaundice within the first 24 hours of life is considered pathological and may indicate hemolytic disease or another serious condition, requiring further investigation.

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