ATI LPN
PN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment Form A
1. A client had a pituitary tumor removed. Which of the following findings requires further assessment?
- A. Glasgow scale score of 15
- B. Blood drainage on dressing measuring 3 cm
- C. Report of dry mouth
- D. Urinary output greater than fluid intake
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. Increased urinary output greater than fluid intake can indicate diabetes insipidus, a common complication after pituitary surgery. Diabetes insipidus is characterized by the excretion of a large volume of dilute urine, leading to dehydration and electrolyte imbalances. This finding requires immediate assessment and intervention. Choice A, a Glasgow scale score of 15, indicates normal neurological functioning. Choice B, blood drainage on dressing measuring 3 cm, may require monitoring but is not a priority over the potential complication of diabetes insipidus. Choice C, a report of dry mouth, is a common complaint postoperatively and can be managed with oral care measures.
2. A nurse is preparing to administer TPN with added fat supplements to a client who has malnutrition. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
- A. Administer the TPN solution separately from 0.9% sodium chloride
- B. Check for an allergy to eggs
- C. Discuss the TPN solution with the client
- D. Monitor for hypoglycemia
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take when preparing to administer TPN with fat supplements is to check for an allergy to eggs. The lipid emulsion in TPN often contains egg phospholipids, so screening for egg allergies is crucial to prevent any adverse reactions. Option A is incorrect because TPN should not be piggybacked with 0.9% sodium chloride to avoid any interactions or dilution of the TPN solution. Option C is incorrect as discussing the TPN solution with the client is not the priority when preparing to administer it. Option D is incorrect as monitoring for hypoglycemia, although important in TPN administration, is not specifically related to the addition of fat supplements.
3. A nurse is assessing a client who is 24 hours postpartum. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the healthcare provider?
- A. Uterine fundus is firm and midline
- B. Client's perineal pad is saturated in 15 minutes
- C. Client reports breast tenderness when breastfeeding
- D. Client's temperature is 100.4°F
Correct answer: B
Rationale: A perineal pad saturated in 15 minutes is a sign of excessive postpartum bleeding, which requires immediate medical attention to prevent postpartum hemorrhage. The other findings are normal postpartum occurrences. A firm and midline uterine fundus indicates proper involution, breast tenderness during breastfeeding is common due to engorgement, and a temperature of 100.4°F is considered within the normal range for the postpartum period.
4. A nurse is caring for a newborn who is 1 hour old and has a respiratory rate of 50 breaths per minute with periods of apnea lasting up to 10 seconds. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
- A. Administer oxygen
- B. Stimulate the newborn
- C. Initiate positive pressure ventilation
- D. Continue routine monitoring
Correct answer: D
Rationale: A respiratory rate of 50 breaths per minute with occasional periods of apnea lasting less than 15 seconds is normal for a newborn. The nurse should continue routine monitoring unless the apneic periods become prolonged or the newborn shows signs of respiratory distress. Administering oxygen or initiating positive pressure ventilation is not indicated in this scenario as the newborn's respiratory rate and apneic episodes are within normal limits for their age. Stimulating the newborn is also unnecessary since the described parameters fall within the expected range for a 1-hour-old infant.
5. A client is being educated by a nurse on nutritional intake. Which of the following should the nurse include in the teaching?
- A. Carbohydrates should be at least 45% of your caloric intake
- B. Protein should be at least 55% of your caloric intake
- C. Carbohydrates should be at least 30% of your caloric intake
- D. Protein should be at least 60% of your caloric intake
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Carbohydrates should make up 45-65% of daily caloric intake as they are the body’s main source of energy. This aligns with general dietary recommendations. Choice B is incorrect as protein should typically make up about 10-35% of daily caloric intake, not 55%. Choice C is also incorrect, as carbohydrates should ideally be between 45-65%, not 30%. Choice D is incorrect because protein should generally account for around 10-35% of total caloric intake, not 60%.
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