ATI LPN
PN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment Form A
1. A client had a pituitary tumor removed. Which of the following findings requires further assessment?
- A. Glasgow scale score of 15
- B. Blood drainage on dressing measuring 3 cm
- C. Report of dry mouth
- D. Urinary output greater than fluid intake
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. Increased urinary output greater than fluid intake can indicate diabetes insipidus, a common complication after pituitary surgery. Diabetes insipidus is characterized by the excretion of a large volume of dilute urine, leading to dehydration and electrolyte imbalances. This finding requires immediate assessment and intervention. Choice A, a Glasgow scale score of 15, indicates normal neurological functioning. Choice B, blood drainage on dressing measuring 3 cm, may require monitoring but is not a priority over the potential complication of diabetes insipidus. Choice C, a report of dry mouth, is a common complaint postoperatively and can be managed with oral care measures.
2. A nurse is assessing a client who was brought to the psychiatric emergency services by law enforcement. The client has disorganized, incoherent speech with loose associations and religious content. The nurse should recognize these signs and symptoms as consistent with which of the following?
- A. Alzheimer's disease
- B. Schizophrenia
- C. Substance intoxication
- D. Depression
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Schizophrenia. Disorganized speech, loose associations, and religious delusions are characteristic symptoms of schizophrenia. In this scenario, the client's presentation aligns with positive symptoms of schizophrenia, indicating a severe mental disorder requiring immediate attention. Choice A, Alzheimer's disease, primarily involves cognitive decline and memory impairment, not disorganized speech or religious content. Choice C, Substance intoxication, may present with altered mental status but typically lacks the persistent pattern of symptoms seen in schizophrenia. Choice D, Depression, is associated with a different set of symptoms such as low mood, anhedonia, and changes in appetite or sleep, rather than disorganized speech and loose associations.
3. A nurse is caring for a client who is in the third trimester of pregnancy and has gestational diabetes. Which of the following complications is the fetus at risk for?
- A. Macrosomia
- B. Hydrocephalus
- C. Cleft palate
- D. Spina bifida
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Macrosomia. Gestational diabetes can result in fetal macrosomia, a condition where the baby grows larger than normal due to excess glucose in the mother's blood. This increases the risk of complications during delivery. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Hydrocephalus is an abnormal accumulation of cerebrospinal fluid within the brain. Cleft palate is a congenital condition where there is a split or opening in the roof of the mouth. Spina bifida is a neural tube defect characterized by the incomplete development of the spinal cord or its coverings.
4. A nurse in an outpatient facility is assessing a client who is prescribed furosemide 40 mg daily, but the client reports she has been taking extra doses to promote weight loss. Which of the following indicates she is dehydrated?
- A. Urine specific gravity of 1.035
- B. Oliguria, increased urine concentration, and an increase in urine specific gravity greater than 1.030
- C. Polyuria
- D. Hypotension
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Oliguria (reduced urine output), increased urine concentration, and a urine specific gravity greater than 1.030 are indicative of dehydration, particularly in clients using diuretics excessively. Choice A is incorrect because a urine specific gravity of 1.035 is high, indicating concentrated urine but not specifically dehydration. Choice C, polyuria, refers to increased urine output and is not consistent with dehydration. Choice D, hypotension, is a sign of fluid volume deficit but is not specific to dehydration as described in the scenario.
5. While assessing four clients, which client data should be reported to the provider?
- A. Client with pleurisy who reports a pain level of 6 out of 10 when coughing
- B. Client with 110 mL of serosanguineous fluid from a JP drain
- C. Client 4 hours postoperative with a heart rate of 98 bpm
- D. Client undergoing chemotherapy with an absolute neutrophil count of 75/mm³
Correct answer: D
Rationale: An absolute neutrophil count of 75/mm³ is critically low and places the client at high risk for infection, necessitating immediate intervention. Neutropenia increases susceptibility to infections, making it essential to report this finding promptly. The other options, such as pain level in pleurisy, drainage amount from a drain, and heart rate postoperatively, are important but do not indicate an immediate life-threatening condition that requires urgent provider notification.
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