Nursing Elites

1. A 45-year-old woman with occasional indigestion has had episodes of chest pain and dysphagia to both solids and liquids. An upper GI series and EGD fail to disclose any structural abnormalities. What is the most appropriate initial therapy?

• A. Sucralfate
• B. Proton pump inhibitor
• C. Prokinetic agent
• D. Benzodiazepine

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The patient's symptoms of chest pain and dysphagia suggest esophageal spasm, often related to underlying gastroesophageal reflux. The initial therapy should focus on acid suppression. Proton pump inhibitors are the preferred choice to reduce acid production and alleviate symptoms. If proton pump inhibitors are ineffective, other options like smooth muscle relaxants or antidepressants may be considered. A Heller myotomy is not indicated in this case as the patient does not have achalasia.

2. A client with portal hypertension who has developed ascites is scheduled for a paracentesis. What pre-procedure nursing intervention is essential?

• A. Encourage the client to empty the bladder
• B. Administer a laxative to clear the bowels
• C. Restrict the client's fluid intake
• D. Place the client in a supine position

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Emptying the bladder before a paracentesis is essential to prevent bladder injury during the procedure. A full bladder may be in the path of the needle insertion, increasing the risk of bladder puncture. Encouraging the client to empty the bladder ensures their safety and reduces the likelihood of complications.

3. An elderly female client comes to the clinic for a regular check-up. The client tells the nurse that she has increased her daily doses of acetaminophen (Tylenol) for the past month to control joint pain. Based on this client's comment, what previous lab values should the nurse compare with today's lab report?

• A. Look at last quarter's hemoglobin and hematocrit to assess for dehydration.
• B. Look for an increase in today's LDH compared to the previous one to assess for possible liver damage.
• C. Expect to find an increase in today's APTT compared to last quarter's due to bleeding.
• D. Determine if there is a decrease in serum potassium due to renal compromise.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When a client increases their daily doses of acetaminophen for joint pain, it raises concerns about possible liver damage due to acetaminophen overdose. LDH (Lactate Dehydrogenase) levels can indicate liver function, so comparing today's levels with previous ones can help assess for liver damage caused by acetaminophen overuse.

4. A client with hepatic encephalopathy exhibits confusion, difficulty arousing from sleep, and rigid extremities. Based on these clinical findings, what stage of hepatic encephalopathy should the nurse document?

• A. Stage 1
• B. Stage 2
• C. Stage 3
• D. Stage 4

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Stage 3 hepatic encephalopathy is characterized by confusion, difficulty arousing from sleep, and rigidity of extremities. These symptoms indicate advanced manifestations of hepatic encephalopathy, requiring prompt intervention and monitoring to prevent further neurological deterioration.

5. A client with newly diagnosed type 2 diabetes is preparing for discharge. Which statement by the client indicates a need for further teaching?

• A. I will take my insulin shots only when my blood sugar is high
• B. I need to follow a balanced diet and exercise regularly
• C. I should monitor my blood sugar levels regularly
• D. I need to take my medication as prescribed by my doctor

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In type 2 diabetes, insulin therapy is typically not the first-line treatment. Patients should follow their prescribed treatment plan, which may or may not include insulin. Taking insulin shots only when blood sugar is high can lead to uncontrolled glucose levels and complications. It is important to adhere to the prescribed medication regimen to manage diabetes effectively.

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