Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is caring for a client who has been diagnosed with hyperkalemia. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

• A. Muscle weakness
• B. Nausea
• C. Increased thirst
• D. Restlessness

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Muscle weakness is a characteristic finding in hyperkalemia. High levels of potassium can affect the normal function of muscles, leading to weakness. Nausea and increased thirst are not typically associated with hyperkalemia. Restlessness is more commonly seen in conditions such as hypoxia or anxiety, not specifically in hyperkalemia.

2. What are the principles of aseptic technique in wound care?

• A. Use sterile gloves and a clean dressing
• B. Apply a clean dressing using sterile scissors
• C. Wash hands thoroughly before applying the dressing
• D. Use a clean glove and avoid contact with the wound

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Use sterile gloves and a clean dressing.' Aseptic technique in wound care requires the use of sterile gloves to prevent infection. Choice B is incorrect as the method of application does not primarily focus on maintaining asepsis. Choice C, while important for infection control, is not specific to aseptic technique in wound care. Choice D is incorrect because using a single clean glove does not ensure the level of sterility needed for aseptic wound care.

3. What should be included in dietary teaching for a client with chronic kidney disease?

• A. Increase potassium-rich foods in the diet
• B. Limit potassium and phosphorus intake
• C. Increase intake of protein-rich foods
• D. Increase fluid intake to prevent dehydration

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to limit potassium and phosphorus intake for a client with chronic kidney disease. Excessive potassium and phosphorus can be harmful to individuals with compromised kidney function. Option A is incorrect because increasing potassium-rich foods can exacerbate hyperkalemia in individuals with kidney disease. Option C may not be ideal as excessive protein intake can put extra strain on the kidneys. Option D is not the priority; while adequate fluid intake is important, it is not the primary focus when teaching dietary considerations for chronic kidney disease.

4. Which of the following is an early indication that a tracheostomy client requires suctioning?

• A. Bradycardia
• B. Irritability
• C. Hypotension
• D. Decreased respiratory rate

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Irritability is indeed an early sign that a tracheostomy client may require suctioning. When a tracheostomy client becomes irritable, it can indicate that there is a need for suctioning to clear the airway. Bradycardia (choice A) refers to a slow heart rate and is not typically a direct indication for suctioning. Hypotension (choice C) indicates low blood pressure and is not specifically related to the need for suctioning. Decreased respiratory rate (choice D) can be a sign of respiratory distress, but irritability is a more direct and early indication of the need for suctioning in a tracheostomy client.

5. A client with active tuberculosis is receiving discharge instructions. Which statement by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?

• A. I will continue taking my isoniazid until I am no longer contagious.
• B. I should take my prescribed medication for at least 6 months.
• C. I will need to have a TB skin test every 3 months.
• D. I should wear a mask at all times.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because the client should take antitubercular medications for a minimum of 6 months to ensure complete eradication of the infection. Choice A is incorrect as stopping the medication early can result in treatment failure and development of drug-resistant TB. Choice C is incorrect as regular TB skin tests are not needed once the client has been diagnosed and treated. Choice D is incorrect as wearing a mask at all times is not necessary for a client with active TB; proper cough etiquette should be followed instead.

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