a nurse is reinforcing teaching with a client who has acute diverticulitis which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding
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Nursing Elites

ATI LPN

ATI PN Comprehensive Predictor 2024

1. A client with acute diverticulitis is receiving teaching from a nurse. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the instructions?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. During acute diverticulitis, avoiding fiber is essential as it helps reduce irritation of the intestines. Choice B is incorrect because taking a laxative daily can exacerbate diverticulitis. Choice C is incorrect as IV fluids mainly provide hydration and electrolytes, not all essential nutrients. Choice D is incorrect because during acute diverticulitis, a low-fiber or liquid diet is typically recommended to rest the bowel.

2. What are the early signs of sepsis in a patient?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Increased heart rate and fever. These are early signs of sepsis and indicate a systemic infection. It is crucial to identify these signs promptly to initiate appropriate treatment. Choice B is incorrect because low blood pressure and confusion are more indicative of severe sepsis or septic shock rather than early signs. Choice C is incorrect as elevated blood sugar and sweating are not typical early signs of sepsis. Choice D is also incorrect as increased urine output and abdominal pain are not early signs of sepsis.

3. A client is receiving phenytoin for management of grand mal seizures and has a new prescription for isoniazid and rifampin. Which of the following should the nurse conclude if the client develops ataxia and incoordination?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Ataxia and incoordination are signs of phenytoin toxicity rather than adverse reactions to rifampin or isoniazid. These symptoms indicate that the client is experiencing an adverse effect of phenytoin, requiring a dose adjustment. Choice A is incorrect because rifampin is not typically associated with ataxia and incoordination. Choice B is incorrect as the development of ataxia and incoordination does not necessarily mean the seizure disorder is no longer under control. Choice D is incorrect as the symptoms are more indicative of phenytoin toxicity rather than adverse effects of combination antimicrobial therapy.

4. What is the priority in managing a client diagnosed with delirium?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The priority in managing a client diagnosed with delirium is to identify any underlying causes. Delirium can be caused by various factors such as infections, medications, or metabolic imbalances. By determining the root cause, healthcare providers can address the issue effectively and tailor the treatment plan accordingly. Administering anti-anxiety medication (Choice A) may help manage symptoms but does not address the underlying cause of delirium. Similarly, reducing environmental stimulation (Choice C) and encouraging deep breathing exercises (Choice D) may provide some relief, but they do not target the primary concern of identifying and addressing the underlying causes of delirium.

5. A nurse is collecting data from a client who has a newly applied cast to the right lower extremity. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When assessing a client with a newly applied cast, the nurse should expect a capillary refill of approximately 2 seconds, as this indicates adequate circulation. A capillary refill longer than 3 seconds suggests impaired circulation, which is abnormal. Therefore, a capillary refill of 5 seconds is the finding the nurse should expect. Pitting edema and shortness of breath are not typically directly related to a newly applied cast and should not be expected findings in this scenario.

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