Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is contributing to the plan of care for a client following a transurethral resection of the prostate (TURP). Which of the following interventions should the nurse include?

• A. Administer antibiotics
• B. Irrigate the bladder using sterile technique
• C. Avoid irrigating the bladder
• D. Insert a urinary catheter

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Irrigating the bladder using sterile technique is crucial in the care of a client following a transurethral resection of the prostate (TURP). This intervention helps prevent infection and maintains patency of the urinary catheter, promoting healing. Administering antibiotics (Choice A) may be necessary if there is an infection present, but it is not a routine intervention following TURP. Avoiding bladder irrigation (Choice C) is not recommended as it can lead to clot retention and other complications. Inserting a urinary catheter (Choice D) is usually already done during the TURP procedure and is not a postoperative intervention.

2. Which nursing action is a priority when caring for a client with heart failure?

• A. Encourage the client to drink fluids frequently
• B. Weigh the client daily to monitor fluid balance
• C. Increase fluid intake to prevent dehydration
• D. Limit the client's sodium intake

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Weighing the client daily is a priority action when caring for a client with heart failure because it helps monitor fluid balance. This monitoring is essential in managing heart failure as it allows healthcare providers to assess for signs of fluid retention or depletion, which are crucial in adjusting treatment plans. Encouraging the client to drink fluids frequently (Choice A) may worsen fluid overload in heart failure patients. Increasing fluid intake (Choice C) can exacerbate fluid retention. While limiting sodium intake (Choice D) is important in heart failure management, monitoring fluid balance through daily weighing takes precedence as a priority nursing action.

3. What are the early signs of hypoglycemia in a diabetic patient?

• A. Sweating and trembling
• B. Confusion and irritability
• C. Dizziness and increased heart rate
• D. Nausea and vomiting

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Sweating and trembling.' These are classic early signs of hypoglycemia in a diabetic patient. Sweating occurs due to the activation of the sympathetic nervous system in response to low blood sugar levels, while trembling is a result of the body's attempt to increase muscle activity to raise blood sugar levels. Confusion and irritability (Choice B) are more advanced signs of hypoglycemia that occur if the condition is not treated promptly. Dizziness and increased heart rate (Choice C) can also occur but are not as specific and early as sweating and trembling. Nausea and vomiting (Choice D) are more commonly associated with other conditions or severe hypoglycemia, rather than being early signs.

4. A nurse is planning an educational program for high school students about cigarette smoking. Which of the following potential consequences of smoking is most likely to discourage adolescents from using tobacco?

• A. Use of tobacco might lead to alcohol and drug abuse.
• B. Smoking in adolescence increases the risk of developing lung cancer later in life.
• C. Use of tobacco decreases the level of athletic ability.
• D. Smoking in adolescence increases the risk of lifelong addiction.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The most likely consequence to discourage adolescents from smoking is the immediate effect of decreased athletic ability. This consequence is more tangible and relevant to high school students compared to long-term health risks like lung cancer or addiction. While choices A, B, and D are all negative outcomes of smoking, choice C is more likely to have a direct impact on adolescents due to its immediate and visible effects on their physical performance.

5. A healthcare provider is caring for a client with a pressure ulcer and needs to review the client's medical history. Which of the following findings is expected?

• A. A Braden scale score of 20
• B. An albumin level of 3 g/dL
• C. A hemoglobin level of 13 g/dL
• D. A Norton scale score of 18

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A serum albumin level of 3 g/dL is indicative of poor nutrition, a common factor in the development of pressure ulcers. The Braden scale assesses the risk of developing pressure ulcers but does not reflect the client's medical history. Hemoglobin level is more related to oxygen-carrying capacity rather than pressure ulcer development. The Norton scale evaluates risk for developing pressure ulcers but is not typically part of a client's medical history.

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