Nursing Elites

1. A healthcare professional is assessing a client in the PACU. Which finding indicates decreased cardiac output?

• A. Shivering
• B. Oliguria
• C. Bradypnea
• D. Constricted pupils

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Oliguria. Oliguria (low urine output) is a sign of decreased cardiac output because the kidneys are not receiving enough blood to produce an adequate amount of urine. Shivering (choice A) is a response to hypothermia or the body's attempt to generate heat. Bradypnea (choice C) refers to abnormally slow breathing rate and is not directly related to cardiac output. Constricted pupils (choice D) are more indicative of conditions affecting the nervous system or medications.

2. While caring for a client receiving nitroglycerin for chest pain, which of the following side effects should the nurse monitor for?

• A. Hypotension
• B. Tachycardia
• C. Bradycardia
• D. Hyperglycemia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Nitroglycerin is known to cause hypotension due to its vasodilating effect, which can lead to low blood pressure. Therefore, the nurse should closely monitor the client for signs of hypotension such as dizziness, light-headedness, or weakness. Tachycardia (increased heart rate), bradycardia (decreased heart rate), and hyperglycemia (high blood sugar) are not typically associated with nitroglycerin use and are less likely to be side effects that the nurse needs to monitor for in this scenario.

3. A client is prescribed spironolactone. Which of the following dietary instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Increase potassium-rich foods
• B. Limit sodium intake
• C. Avoid potassium supplements
• D. Increase protein intake

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is to advise the client to avoid potassium supplements. Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic, meaning it helps the body retain potassium. Adding potassium supplements on top of this medication can lead to hyperkalemia, an elevated level of potassium in the blood, which can be dangerous. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because increasing potassium-rich foods, limiting sodium intake, and increasing protein intake are not specifically related to the dietary considerations when taking spironolactone.

4. A nurse is caring for a client prescribed lisinopril. Which of the following medication interactions should the nurse instruct this client about?

• A. Potassium supplements
• B. Ciprofloxacin
• C. Escitalopram
• D. Magnesium supplements

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Potassium supplements. Lisinopril, an ACE inhibitor, can increase potassium levels in the body. Therefore, the nurse should instruct the client to avoid potassium supplements to prevent hyperkalemia, a potentially dangerous condition. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not have significant interactions with lisinopril that would lead to adverse effects like hyperkalemia.

5. A nurse is providing teaching for a child who is prescribed ferrous sulfate. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Take the medication with milk
• B. Take with a glass of orange juice
• C. Take at bedtime
• D. Take with meals

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Take with a glass of orange juice.' Ferrous sulfate should be taken with orange juice (vitamin C) to enhance the absorption of iron. Taking it with milk (choice A) is not recommended as calcium can interfere with iron absorption. Taking it at bedtime (choice C) or with meals (choice D) may lead to decreased absorption due to interactions with other food or medications.

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