Nursing Elites

1. A healthcare professional is assessing a client in the PACU. Which finding indicates decreased cardiac output?

• A. Shivering
• B. Oliguria
• C. Bradypnea
• D. Constricted pupils

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Oliguria. Oliguria (low urine output) is a sign of decreased cardiac output because the kidneys are not receiving enough blood to produce an adequate amount of urine. Shivering (choice A) is a response to hypothermia or the body's attempt to generate heat. Bradypnea (choice C) refers to abnormally slow breathing rate and is not directly related to cardiac output. Constricted pupils (choice D) are more indicative of conditions affecting the nervous system or medications.

2. When teaching a client about the use of risperidone, which of the following should be included?

• A. It is an SSRI
• B. Monitor for metabolic syndrome
• C. It has no side effects
• D. It can be taken with alcohol

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Monitor for metabolic syndrome.' Risperidone is not an SSRI but an atypical antipsychotic. Choice A is incorrect. Choice C is also incorrect as risperidone, like any medication, can have side effects. Choice D is wrong because alcohol consumption should generally be avoided while taking risperidone. Educating clients about monitoring for metabolic syndrome, weight gain, and other potential side effects is crucial in managing their health effectively while on this medication.

3. A nurse is preparing to administer a dose of warfarin. Which of the following should the nurse do?

• A. Check INR levels
• B. Administer it with food
• C. Monitor blood glucose
• D. Assess liver function

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to check INR levels. Before administering warfarin, it is crucial to check the INR levels to ensure they are within the therapeutic range. This helps to prevent complications such as bleeding or clotting. Choice B, administering it with food, is incorrect as warfarin should typically be taken on an empty stomach. Choice C, monitoring blood glucose, is unrelated to the administration of warfarin. Choice D, assessing liver function, is important but not the immediate action required before administering warfarin.

4. A healthcare professional is reviewing the results of an ABG performed on a client with chronic emphysema. Which of the following results suggests the need for further treatment?

• A. PaO2 level of 89 mm Hg
• B. PaCO2 level of 55 mm Hg
• C. HCO3 level of 25 mEq/L
• D. pH level of 7.37

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A PaCO2 level of 55 mm Hg indicates hypercapnia, which is common in clients with emphysema but may require further treatment if it leads to respiratory acidosis or distress. Elevated PaCO2 levels can indicate inadequate ventilation and impaired gas exchange, potentially leading to respiratory acidosis. The other results fall within normal ranges or compensated values for a client with chronic emphysema and do not necessarily indicate the need for immediate intervention.

5. A client is being taught about the use of levothyroxine. Which of the following should be included in the teaching?

• A. Take it with food
• B. Take it at the same time every day
• C. It can be stopped suddenly
• D. Monitor for hyperglycemia

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Take it at the same time every day.' It is important to take levothyroxine consistently at the same time each day to maintain stable thyroid hormone levels. Choice A is incorrect as levothyroxine should be taken on an empty stomach for better absorption. Choice C is incorrect because stopping levothyroxine suddenly can lead to adverse effects due to sudden changes in hormone levels. Choice D is also incorrect as hyperglycemia is not a common side effect associated with levothyroxine.

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