a nurse is in an acute care facility caring for a client who is postop following abdominal surgery which behavior should the nurse identify as increas
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Nursing Elites

ATI LPN

PN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment 2020 B

1. A nurse is in an acute care facility, caring for a client who is postop following abdominal surgery. Which behavior should the nurse identify as increasing the client's risk for constipation?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Suppression of the urge to defecate.' Suppressing the urge to defecate can lead to constipation, especially in postoperative clients. It is essential to encourage clients to respond to the urge to defecate to prevent constipation. Increased fiber intake (Choice A) is beneficial for preventing constipation. Ambulation (Choice C) helps promote bowel motility and can reduce the risk of constipation. Daily laxative use (Choice D) may contribute to laxative dependence but is not the behavior most directly associated with increasing the risk of constipation in this scenario.

2. A nurse is monitoring a client during an IV urography procedure. Which of the following client reports is the priority finding?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Swollen lips indicate a potential allergic reaction or anaphylaxis to the contrast dye used during the procedure, which requires immediate medical intervention. Abdominal fullness and metallic taste are common side effects of IV urography and can be managed without urgent intervention. Feeling flushed and warm may also be a common reaction during the procedure and does not indicate a life-threatening situation like an allergic reaction.

3. A healthcare provider is assessing a client who has a heart rate of 40/min. The client is diaphoretic and has chest pain. Which of the following medications should the healthcare provider plan to administer?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The client presents with bradycardia, diaphoresis, and chest pain, indicating reduced cardiac output. Atropine is the appropriate choice as it increases heart rate by blocking the parasympathetic nervous system. Lidocaine is used for ventricular arrhythmias, Adenosine for supraventricular tachycardia, and Verapamil for controlling heart rate in atrial fibrillation or atrial flutter. These medications are not suitable for the client's current presentation.

4. A child is prescribed ferrous sulfate. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is to take ferrous sulfate with a glass of orange juice. Vitamin C, found in orange juice, enhances iron absorption. Taking iron with milk (choice C) is not recommended as it reduces iron absorption. Taking it with meals (choice A) can hinder its absorption due to other food components. Taking it at bedtime (choice B) doesn't affect absorption but might cause gastrointestinal upset in some individuals.

5. A nurse is caring for a client who has been experiencing repeated tonic-clonic seizures over the course of 30 min. After maintaining the client’s airway and turning the client on their side, which of the following medications should the nurse administer?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In the scenario of a client experiencing prolonged seizures, such as status epilepticus, the priority is to administer a benzodiazepine to stop the seizure activity. Diazepam is the medication of choice for this situation due to its rapid onset of action and effectiveness in terminating seizures quickly. Lorazepam, although another benzodiazepine, is typically given through routes other than oral (PO) administration in emergency situations. Diltiazem is a calcium channel blocker used for cardiac conditions, not for seizure management. Clonazepam is a benzodiazepine, but it is usually not the first choice in the acute management of status epilepticus.

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