Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is completing a dietary assessment for a client who observes kosher dietary practices. Which of the following behaviors should the nurse expect?

• A. Leavened bread may be eaten during Passover
• B. Shellfish is commonly consumed in the diet
• C. Meat and dairy products are eaten separately
• D. Fasting from meat occurs during Hanukkah

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Meat and dairy products are eaten separately.' In kosher dietary practices, it is essential to keep meat and dairy products separate. Mixing meat and dairy is prohibited, and there are specific guidelines for the preparation and consumption of each. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Choice A is wrong because leavened bread is not eaten during Passover in kosher practices. Choice B is incorrect as shellfish is not consumed in a kosher diet. Choice D is also inaccurate as fasting from meat does not occur during Hanukkah in kosher dietary practices.

2. A nurse is providing dietary teaching for a client who has chronic cholecystitis. Which of the following diets should the nurse recommend?

• A. Low potassium diet
• B. High fiber diet
• C. Low fat diet
• D. Low sodium diet

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Low fat diet.' A client with chronic cholecystitis should follow a low-fat diet to decrease the frequency of biliary colic episodes. Fats can trigger the release of cholecystokinin, which stimulates the gallbladder to contract, potentially causing pain in individuals with cholecystitis. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. A low potassium diet is prescribed for individuals with specific kidney conditions or on certain medications. A high fiber diet is beneficial for conditions like constipation, diverticulosis, or to promote general bowel health. A low sodium diet is often recommended for conditions like hypertension or heart failure to reduce fluid retention.

3. A healthcare professional is reviewing the lab report of a client who has been experiencing a fever for the last 3 days. What lab result indicates the client is experiencing fluid volume deficit (FVD)?

• A. Decreased hematocrit
• B. Increased BUN
• C. Increased hematocrit
• D. Decreased urine specific gravity

Correct answer: C

Rationale: An increased hematocrit level indicates dehydration or fluid volume deficit. Hematocrit measures the proportion of blood volume that is occupied by red blood cells, and when a client is experiencing fluid volume deficit, there is less fluid in the blood, causing the concentration of red blood cells to be higher, leading to an increased hematocrit level. Decreased hematocrit (Choice A) is more indicative of fluid volume excess. Increased BUN (Choice B) is associated with renal function and dehydration but is not a direct indicator of FVD. Decreased urine specific gravity (Choice D) is also associated with dehydration, but an increased hematocrit is a more specific indicator of fluid volume deficit.

4. A client who is 32 weeks pregnant and has a diagnosis of placenta previa is receiving teaching from a nurse. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Limit physical activity
• B. Monitor fetal movements daily
• C. Call the healthcare provider if contractions begin
• D. All of the above

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Clients diagnosed with placenta previa are at an increased risk of bleeding and preterm labor. Therefore, it is essential for them to limit physical activity to prevent complications. Monitoring fetal movements daily helps in assessing the well-being of the fetus. Additionally, notifying the healthcare provider if contractions begin is crucial as it could be a sign of preterm labor. Therefore, all of the instructions (limiting physical activity, monitoring fetal movements, and calling the healthcare provider if contractions begin) are necessary for managing placenta previa effectively. Choices A, B, and C are all correct instructions for a client with placenta previa.

5. A nurse is providing education on the use of aspirin. Which of the following should be included?

• A. It can increase the risk of bleeding
• B. It is safe to give to children
• C. It should be taken on an empty stomach
• D. It has no side effects

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'It can increase the risk of bleeding.' Aspirin is known to have antiplatelet effects and can increase the risk of bleeding, especially if taken in high doses or for prolonged periods. Choice B is incorrect because aspirin is not safe for children due to the risk of Reye's syndrome. Choice C is incorrect because aspirin should be taken with food to minimize gastrointestinal side effects. Choice D is incorrect because aspirin, like any medication, can have side effects, such as gastrointestinal bleeding, ulcers, or allergic reactions.

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