ATI LPN
PN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment Form B
1. A nurse is completing a dietary assessment for a client who observes kosher dietary practices. Which of the following behaviors should the nurse expect?
- A. Leavened bread may be eaten during Passover
- B. Shellfish is commonly consumed in the diet
- C. Meat and dairy products are eaten separately
- D. Fasting from meat occurs during Hanukkah
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Meat and dairy products are eaten separately.' In kosher dietary practices, it is essential to keep meat and dairy products separate. Mixing meat and dairy is prohibited, and there are specific guidelines for the preparation and consumption of each. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Choice A is wrong because leavened bread is not eaten during Passover in kosher practices. Choice B is incorrect as shellfish is not consumed in a kosher diet. Choice D is also inaccurate as fasting from meat does not occur during Hanukkah in kosher dietary practices.
2. A nurse is caring for an older adult who has a non-palpable skin lesion that is less than 0.5 cm in diameter. Which term should the nurse use to document this finding?
- A. Vesicle
- B. Macule
- C. Papule
- D. Nodule
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Macule. A macule is a non-palpable skin lesion smaller than 1 cm in diameter. In this case, the skin lesion described is less than 0.5 cm, making it consistent with a macule. Vesicle (choice A) is a small blister filled with clear fluid, papule (choice C) is a solid, raised skin lesion less than 0.5 cm in diameter, and nodule (choice D) is a palpable, solid lesion larger than 0.5 cm in diameter. Therefore, choices A, C, and D describe skin lesions that do not match the characteristics of the lesion presented in the question.
3. A nurse is caring for a client who is taking warfarin. The nurse notes that the client has a new prescription for amoxicillin. Which of the following laboratory tests should the nurse monitor closely?
- A. Serum potassium
- B. Prothrombin time (PT)
- C. Serum sodium
- D. Blood glucose
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Prothrombin time (PT). Amoxicillin can potentiate the effects of warfarin, increasing the risk of bleeding. Monitoring the prothrombin time (PT) is crucial in this situation to assess the client's clotting ability. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because amoxicillin's interaction with warfarin does not directly impact serum potassium, serum sodium, or blood glucose levels.
4. A client is prescribed insulin glargine. Which of the following should the nurse instruct the client to do regarding administration of this medication?
- A. Inject insulin glargine 30 minutes before a meal.
- B. Shake the insulin vial before administration.
- C. Administer insulin glargine once daily at bedtime.
- D. Take insulin glargine with short-acting insulin.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Administer insulin glargine once daily at bedtime. Insulin glargine is a long-acting insulin that provides a basal level of insulin throughout the day. It should be given at the same time each day, usually at bedtime, to maintain a consistent blood sugar level. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Injecting insulin glargine before a meal (Choice A) is not necessary as it is a long-acting insulin. Shaking the insulin vial (Choice B) is not recommended as it may cause bubbles to form, affecting the accuracy of the dose. Taking insulin glargine with short-acting insulin (Choice D) is not a typical practice as insulin glargine is used for basal insulin coverage.
5. A nurse in the emergency department is prioritizing care for four clients. Which of the following clients should the nurse see first?
- A. A 6-year-old with a dislocated shoulder
- B. A 26-year-old with sickle cell disease and severe joint pain
- C. A 76-year-old with confusion, fever, and foul-smelling urine
- D. A 50-year-old with slurred speech, disorientation, and headache
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The client with slurred speech, disorientation, and a headache may be experiencing a stroke, a life-threatening condition that requires immediate attention. Identifying and managing a stroke promptly can reduce the risk of long-term disability or complications. The other options, although important, do not present immediate life-threatening conditions that require urgent intervention. A dislocated shoulder, severe joint pain in sickle cell disease, confusion with fever and foul-smelling urine, while concerning, can be addressed after attending to the client with potential stroke symptoms.
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