Nursing Elites

1. A client with hyperemesis gravidarum is receiving dietary teaching. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?

• A. I will eat foods that appeal to my taste instead of trying to balance my meals.
• B. I will avoid having a snack at bedtime.
• C. I will have 8 ounces of hot tea with each meal.
• D. I will pair my sweets with a starch instead of eating them alone.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In hyperemesis gravidarum, where there is severe nausea and vomiting during pregnancy, it is essential for the client to eat foods that appeal to their taste to prevent further nausea. Balancing meals may not be a priority initially if the client is struggling to keep any food down. Choice B is unrelated to managing hyperemesis gravidarum. Choice C, having hot tea with each meal, may not necessarily address the issue of taste preferences. Choice D, pairing sweets with a starch, is not as relevant as choosing foods appealing to taste for managing hyperemesis gravidarum.

2. A newborn was delivered vaginally and experienced a tight nuchal cord. Which of the following clinical manifestations should the nurse expect to observe?

• A. Bruising over the buttocks
• B. Hard nodules on the roof of the mouth
• C. Petechiae over the head
• D. Bilateral periauricular papillomas

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When a newborn experiences a tight nuchal cord during delivery, it can lead to petechiae, which are small red or purple spots on the skin caused by bleeding under the skin. These petechiae may appear over the head, face, and neck due to the pressure of the cord. It is essential for the nurse to recognize this as a possible consequence and monitor the newborn for any signs of complications. Bruising over the buttocks (Choice A) is not typically associated with a tight nuchal cord. Hard nodules on the roof of the mouth (Choice B) are more indicative of Epstein pearls or Bohn's nodules, which are considered normal findings in newborns. Bilateral periauricular papillomas (Choice D) are not related to a tight nuchal cord but are seen in congenital syphilis.

3. A client is in the first trimester of pregnancy and lacks immunity to rubella. When should the client receive rubella immunization?

• A. Shortly after giving birth
• B. In the third trimester
• C. Immediately
• D. During the next attempt to get pregnant

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Rubella immunization is recommended shortly after giving birth for a pregnant individual who lacks immunity. This timing ensures the client is protected from rubella in future pregnancies. Administering the vaccine postpartum allows the body to develop immunity without posing any risk to the developing fetus during pregnancy. Option B is incorrect because administering the rubella vaccine in the third trimester can potentially expose the developing fetus to the live virus, which is not recommended. Option C is incorrect as there is a preferred timing for rubella immunization in this scenario. Option D is incorrect as waiting until the next attempt to get pregnant does not protect the current pregnancy from rubella exposure.

4. A client is in labor, and a nurse observes late decelerations on the electronic fetal monitor. What should the nurse identify as the first action that the registered nurse should take?

• A. Assist the client into the left-lateral position
• B. Apply a fetal scalp electrode
• C. Insert an IV catheter
• D. Perform a vaginal exam

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Late decelerations indicate uteroplacental insufficiency. The initial action should be to assist the client into the left-lateral position to optimize maternal blood flow and oxygenation to the fetus, thereby improving uteroplacental blood flow and fetal oxygenation. This position helps reduce pressure on the vena cava, enhancing blood return to the heart and improving circulation to the placenta. Applying a fetal scalp electrode (Choice B) is not the first action indicated for late decelerations. Inserting an IV catheter (Choice C) and performing a vaginal exam (Choice D) are not primary interventions for addressing late decelerations related to uteroplacental insufficiency.

5. During a client's active labor, a healthcare provider notes that the presenting part is at 0 station. What is the correct interpretation of this clinical finding?

• A. The fetal head is in the left occiput posterior position.
• B. The largest fetal diameter has passed through the pelvic outlet.
• C. The posterior fontanel is palpable.
• D. The lowermost portion of the fetus is at the level of the ischial spines.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: At 0 station, the lowermost portion of the fetus is at the level of the ischial spines, indicating that the presenting part of the baby has engaged in the pelvis. This position is a significant milestone in labor progress and suggests that the baby is descending into the birth canal for delivery. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Choice A refers to the fetal head position, choice B describes the largest fetal diameter passing through the pelvic outlet (which is not related to station), and choice C refers to the palpability of the posterior fontanel (which is not relevant to station in labor).

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