Nursing Elites

1. A client with hyperemesis gravidarum is receiving dietary teaching. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?

• A. I will eat foods that appeal to my taste instead of trying to balance my meals.
• B. I will avoid having a snack at bedtime.
• C. I will have 8 ounces of hot tea with each meal.
• D. I will pair my sweets with a starch instead of eating them alone.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In hyperemesis gravidarum, where there is severe nausea and vomiting during pregnancy, it is essential for the client to eat foods that appeal to their taste to prevent further nausea. Balancing meals may not be a priority initially if the client is struggling to keep any food down. Choice B is unrelated to managing hyperemesis gravidarum. Choice C, having hot tea with each meal, may not necessarily address the issue of taste preferences. Choice D, pairing sweets with a starch, is not as relevant as choosing foods appealing to taste for managing hyperemesis gravidarum.

2. A healthcare provider in a clinic is reinforcing teaching with a client of childbearing age about recommended folic acid supplements. Which of the following defects can occur in the fetus or neonate as a result of folic acid deficiency?

• A. Iron deficiency anemia
• B. Poor bone formation
• C. Macrosomic fetus
• D. Neural tube defects

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Neural tube defects. Folic acid deficiency during pregnancy can lead to neural tube defects in the fetus, affecting the brain, spine, or spinal cord development. Iron deficiency anemia (choice A) is not directly related to folic acid deficiency. Poor bone formation (choice B) is more associated with calcium and vitamin D deficiencies. Macrosomic fetus (choice C) refers to a baby with excessive birth weight and is not a typical outcome of folic acid deficiency in pregnancy. Therefore, it is crucial for individuals of childbearing age to take recommended folic acid supplements to prevent neural tube defects.

3. A healthcare professional is discussing risk factors for urinary tract infections with a newly licensed nurse. Which of the following conditions should the healthcare professional include in the teaching? (Select all that apply)

• A. Epidural anesthesia
• B. Urinary bladder catheterization
• C. Frequent pelvic examinations
• D. All of the Above

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Urinary tract infections can be influenced by various factors. Epidural anesthesia, urinary bladder catheterization, and frequent pelvic examinations are all associated with an increased risk of UTIs. Epidural anesthesia can introduce bacteria into the urinary tract, urinary bladder catheterization can serve as a pathway for bacteria to enter the bladder, and frequent pelvic examinations can disrupt the natural flora and introduce bacteria. Therefore, it is crucial for healthcare professionals to be aware of these risk factors to help prevent and manage UTIs effectively. Choice D, 'All of the Above,' is the correct answer as all the listed conditions are significant risk factors for urinary tract infections. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because each of them, when present, can contribute to the development of UTIs. It is essential for healthcare professionals to educate patients and colleagues about these risk factors to minimize the occurrence of UTIs.

4. When reinforcing discharge teaching to the parents of a newborn regarding circumcision care, which statement made by a parent indicates an understanding of the teaching?

• A. The circumcision will heal within a couple of days.
• B. I should not remove the yellow mucus that will form.
• C. I will clean the penis with each diaper change.
• D. I will give him a tub bath within a couple of days.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because cleaning the penis with each diaper change is essential for preventing infection and promoting healing after circumcision. This practice helps maintain good hygiene and reduces the risk of complications. Removing the yellow mucus or giving a tub bath too soon can interfere with the healing process and increase the likelihood of infection. Choice A is incorrect because circumcision healing usually takes about a week or more, not just a couple of days. Choice B is incorrect because parents should gently clean the area, including removing any discharge or debris as part of proper care. Choice D is incorrect because tub baths should be avoided until the circumcision is fully healed to prevent infection.

5. A client is being cared for 2 hours after a spontaneous vaginal birth and has saturated two perineal pads with blood in a 30-minute period. Which of the following is the priority nursing intervention at this time?

• A. Palpate the client's uterine fundus.
• B. Assist the client to a bedpan to urinate.
• C. Prepare to administer oxytocic medication.
• D. Increase the client's fluid intake.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The priority nursing intervention in this situation is to palpate the client's uterine fundus. A boggy uterus that is not well contracted may indicate uterine atony, which can lead to postpartum hemorrhage. Palpating the fundus and massaging it if it is boggy helps to promote contractions and reduce bleeding, making it the most critical intervention to address the potential underlying issue. Assisting the client to a bedpan to urinate, preparing to administer oxytocic medication, or increasing the client's fluid intake are not the immediate priorities in this scenario compared to assessing and addressing the uterine fundus status.

Similar Questions