Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is conducting an infertility assessment for a newly admitted client. Which of the following factors should the nurse identify as affecting the client's fertility?

• A. Premature ovarian failure
• B. Renal calculi
• C. Dysmenorrhea
• D. Recurrent urinary tract infection

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Premature ovarian failure should be identified as affecting the client's fertility. It leads to reduced or absent ovarian function, resulting in decreased estrogen production and irregular menstrual cycles, which can impact fertility. Renal calculi, dysmenorrhea, and recurrent urinary tract infections do not directly affect fertility and are not typically associated with infertility assessments. Renal calculi are kidney stones that do not directly relate to reproductive health. Dysmenorrhea is painful menstruation but does not necessarily indicate infertility. Recurrent urinary tract infections primarily affect the urinary system and do not directly impact fertility.

2. A client with a history of asthma is being cared for by a nurse. Which of the following should the nurse monitor?

• A. Heart rate
• B. Respiratory status
• C. Blood glucose levels
• D. Liver function

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Respiratory status. When caring for a client with asthma, it is essential to monitor their respiratory status to detect any changes in breathing or signs of airway obstruction. Monitoring heart rate (choice A) may be important in some situations but is not the priority when managing asthma. Blood glucose levels (choice C) and liver function (choice D) are not directly related to asthma and would not be the primary focus of monitoring for a client with this condition.

3. A nurse is assessing a client who has a blood glucose level of 250 mg/dL. Which of the following clinical manifestations is associated with this finding?

• A. Confusion
• B. Thirst
• C. Diaphoresis
• D. Shakiness

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Corrected Detailed Rationale: A blood glucose level of 250 mg/dL indicates hyperglycemia. Thirst (polydipsia) is a common clinical manifestation associated with hyperglycemia. The body tries to compensate for the high blood sugar by increasing fluid intake. Confusion (choice A) is more commonly associated with hypoglycemia, not hyperglycemia. Diaphoresis (choice C) and shakiness (choice D) are typical manifestations of hypoglycemia, not hyperglycemia. Therefore, the correct answer is increased thirst (polydipsia) in response to the elevated blood glucose level.

4. A client with ulcerative colitis has a new prescription for sulfasalazine. What adverse effect should the client monitor for according to the nurse?

• A. Jaundice
• B. Constipation
• C. Oral candidiasis
• D. Sedation

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Jaundice. Sulfasalazine can lead to liver toxicity, making it essential to monitor for jaundice, a sign of liver dysfunction. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because constipation, oral candidiasis, and sedation are not commonly associated with sulfasalazine use.

5. A nurse is providing teaching about the Mediterranean diet to a client who has a new diagnosis of hypertension. Which of the following statements by the client indicates a need for further teaching?

• A. I will limit my intake of red meat to twice monthly.
• B. I can have dairy in moderate portions daily.
• C. I can have fish two times a week.
• D. I can drink wine in moderation.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. In the Mediterranean diet, red meat should be limited to two times monthly, not weekly. Choice B is correct as dairy in moderate portions daily is suitable for the Mediterranean diet. Choice C is also correct as having fish two times a week aligns with the Mediterranean diet. Choice D is correct as moderate wine consumption is a component of the Mediterranean diet.

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