ATI LPN
PN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment 2020 B
1. A nurse is caring for a client prescribed clopidogrel. Which of the following should the nurse monitor?
- A. Liver function tests
- B. Blood pressure
- C. Potassium levels
- D. Respiratory rate
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Clopidogrel is an antiplatelet medication, so the nurse should monitor for signs of bleeding and liver function tests due to potential liver effects. Monitoring liver function tests is essential to detect any adverse effects on the liver because clopidogrel can cause hepatotoxicity. While monitoring blood pressure, potassium levels, and respiratory rate are important in general patient care, they are not the priority assessments specifically related to clopidogrel use.
2. A nurse should teach which of the following clients requiring crutches about how to use a three-point gait?
- A. A client who is able to bear full weight on both lower extremities.
- B. A client who has bilateral leg braces due to paralysis of the lower extremities.
- C. A client who has a right femur fracture with no weight bearing on the affected leg.
- D. A client who has bilateral knee replacements with partial weight bearing on both legs.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because a three-point gait is used when the client can bear full weight on one foot and uses crutches and the uninvolved leg to ambulate. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because they do not meet the criteria for using a three-point gait. Choice A states that the client can bear full weight on both lower extremities, which does not require a three-point gait. Choice B mentions bilateral leg braces due to paralysis, which would not involve using a three-point gait. Choice D describes a client with bilateral knee replacements with partial weight bearing, which also does not align with the use of a three-point gait.
3. A nurse is teaching a client about the use of a metered-dose inhaler (MDI). Which instruction should the nurse include in the teaching?
- A. Inhale the medication deeply for 3-5 seconds
- B. Exhale forcefully before inhaling
- C. Shake the MDI vigorously before use
- D. Hold the mouthpiece 2.5-5 cm (1-2 in) in front of the mouth
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Inhaling the medication deeply for 3-5 seconds and holding the breath for 10 seconds after inhalation ensures effective medication delivery to the lungs. Choice A is the correct instruction for the use of a metered-dose inhaler (MDI). Choice B, exhaling forcefully before inhaling, is incorrect as it can lead to decreased medication delivery. Choice C, shaking the MDI vigorously before use, is also incorrect as excessive shaking can cause the medication to clump. Choice D, holding the mouthpiece 2.5-5 cm (1-2 in) in front of the mouth, is not recommended as it may lead to improper inhalation technique.
4. A nurse is preparing to administer TPN with added fat supplements to a client who has malnutrition. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
- A. Administer the TPN solution separately from 0.9% sodium chloride
- B. Check for an allergy to eggs
- C. Discuss the TPN solution with the client
- D. Monitor for hypoglycemia
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take when preparing to administer TPN with fat supplements is to check for an allergy to eggs. The lipid emulsion in TPN often contains egg phospholipids, so screening for egg allergies is crucial to prevent any adverse reactions. Option A is incorrect because TPN should not be piggybacked with 0.9% sodium chloride to avoid any interactions or dilution of the TPN solution. Option C is incorrect as discussing the TPN solution with the client is not the priority when preparing to administer it. Option D is incorrect as monitoring for hypoglycemia, although important in TPN administration, is not specifically related to the addition of fat supplements.
5. A healthcare provider is preparing to administer a dose of clindamycin. Which of the following should the provider assess first?
- A. Allergy history
- B. Vital signs
- C. Renal function
- D. Liver function
Correct answer: A
Rationale: When preparing to administer clindamycin, assessing the patient's allergy history is crucial as clindamycin can cause severe allergic reactions. This assessment helps identify any potential risks related to allergies and enables the healthcare provider to take necessary precautions. Vital signs, renal function, and liver function are also important assessments before administering medications, but in this case, checking for any history of allergies takes priority due to the risk of severe allergic reactions associated with clindamycin.
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