Nursing Elites

1. When caring for a client with a hearing impairment, which of the following actions should the nurse take when speaking with the client?

• A. Speak in a high-pitched voice.
• B. Exaggerate lip movements.
• C. Face the client when speaking.
• D. Use a monotone voice.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When caring for a client with a hearing impairment, it is essential for the nurse to face the client when speaking. By facing the client, the nurse allows the individual to read lips and see facial expressions, which can significantly improve communication effectiveness. This approach facilitates better understanding and helps the client feel more connected during interactions. Speaking in a high-pitched voice (Choice A) is not recommended as it may distort speech sounds. Exaggerating lip movements (Choice B) can be patronizing and ineffective. Using a monotone voice (Choice D) lacks intonation that helps convey meaning and emotions in speech, making it harder for the client to understand.

2. A client has a prescription for a soft diet. Which of the following foods should the nurse offer?

• A. Fresh apples
• B. Mashed potatoes
• C. Raw carrots
• D. Nuts

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When a client is on a soft diet, it is important to offer foods that are easy to chew and swallow. Mashed potatoes are a suitable choice for a soft diet as they are soft in texture and easy to digest. Fresh apples, raw carrots, and nuts are harder and may not be appropriate for a soft diet. Fresh apples and raw carrots require more chewing, and nuts are hard and crunchy, which can be difficult for someone on a soft diet to consume. Therefore, mashed potatoes are the correct option for a client on a soft diet.

3. A client is receiving continuous enteral feedings through a nasogastric tube. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Elevate the head of the bed to 30°
• B. Flush the tube with 50 mL of water every 2 hours
• C. Replace the feeding bag and tubing every 72 hours
• D. Check the client's gastric residual every 8 hours

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Elevating the head of the bed to 30° is the correct action to take when a client is receiving continuous enteral feedings through a nasogastric tube. This position helps prevent aspiration of the enteral feedings into the lungs, reducing the risk of aspiration pneumonia. Additionally, elevating the head of the bed promotes proper digestion and absorption of the feedings by utilizing gravity to facilitate movement into the stomach and through the gastrointestinal tract. Flushing the tube with water every 2 hours (Choice B) is not necessary for continuous feedings and may disrupt the feeding schedule. Replacing the feeding bag and tubing every 72 hours (Choice C) is not the standard recommendation unless there are specific concerns or complications. Checking the client's gastric residual every 8 hours (Choice D) is important but not the immediate action needed to prevent aspiration during enteral feedings.

4. What is the primary purpose of the Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA)?

• A. To provide health insurance coverage for all Americans.
• B. To ensure the confidentiality of health information.
• C. To reduce the cost of healthcare.
• D. To increase access to healthcare services.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The primary purpose of the Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA) is to ensure the confidentiality and security of health information. HIPAA establishes national standards to protect individuals' medical records and other personal health information. By safeguarding the privacy of health data, HIPAA aims to maintain the integrity and confidentiality of sensitive patient information, preventing unauthorized access and disclosure. This focus on privacy and security helps build trust between patients and healthcare providers, ensuring that personal health information is handled responsibly and ethically.

5. A client is being assessed for dehydration. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

• A. Elevated blood pressure
• B. Increased skin turgor
• C. Dark-colored urine
• D. Bradypnea

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Dark-colored urine is a common sign of dehydration as the urine becomes concentrated. Dehydration leads to reduced fluid intake or excessive fluid loss, causing the urine to be darker in color due to increased urine concentration. Elevated blood pressure (Choice A) is not typically associated with dehydration; instead, dehydration often leads to low blood pressure. Increased skin turgor (Choice B) is actually a sign of good hydration, not dehydration. Bradypnea (Choice D), which refers to abnormally slow breathing, is not a common finding in dehydration.

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