Nursing Elites

1. A nurse receives a report on four clients. Which client should the nurse assess first?

• A. A client scheduled for chemotherapy with a hemoglobin of 9 g/dL
• B. A client 24 hours post-TURP with small blood clots in the catheter
• C. A client receiving a blood transfusion who reports low back pain
• D. A client with a new colostomy and a reddish-pink stoma

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Low back pain during a blood transfusion is a classic sign of a transfusion reaction, specifically a transfusion-associated circulatory overload (TACO) or hemolytic reaction, both of which require immediate attention to prevent serious complications. Assessing this client first is crucial to ensure prompt intervention. Choices A, B, and D do not indicate immediate life-threatening complications and can be addressed after the client experiencing low back pain during a blood transfusion is stabilized.

2. When teaching a client about the use of lisinopril, which of the following should be included?

• A. It can cause a persistent cough
• B. It is a calcium channel blocker
• C. It is safe during pregnancy
• D. It should be taken with food

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Lisinopril is an ACE inhibitor, and a common side effect associated with its use is a persistent cough. This is important information that the client should be aware of. Choice B is incorrect because lisinopril is not a calcium channel blocker, it is an ACE inhibitor. Choice C is incorrect as lisinopril is not considered safe during pregnancy, especially during the second and third trimesters as it can cause harm to the fetus. Choice D is incorrect because lisinopril is typically recommended to be taken on an empty stomach, about an hour before meals.

3. During a change-of-shift assessment, a nurse is evaluating four clients. Which finding should the nurse report to the provider first?

• A. Client with cystic fibrosis who has a thick productive cough and reports thirst
• B. Client with gastroenteritis who is lethargic and confused
• C. Client with diabetes mellitus who has a morning fasting glucose of 185 mg/dL
• D. Client with sickle cell anemia who reports pain 15 minutes after receiving analgesic

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The nurse should report the client with gastroenteritis who is lethargic and confused to the provider first. Lethargy and confusion in a client with gastroenteritis may indicate dehydration or electrolyte imbalance, both of which can be life-threatening if not addressed promptly. The other options indicate important assessments that require intervention but do not pose an immediate life-threatening risk compared to the client with signs of dehydration and electrolyte imbalance.

4. A client receiving IV moderate (conscious) sedation with midazolam has a respiratory rate of 9/min and is not responding to commands. Which of the following is an appropriate action by the nurse?

• A. Place the client in a prone position
• B. Implement positive pressure ventilation
• C. Perform nasopharyngeal suctioning
• D. Administer flumazenil

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In this scenario, the client is showing signs of respiratory depression and central nervous system depression due to midazolam sedation. Administering flumazenil is the correct action as it is the antidote for midazolam, a benzodiazepine, and can reverse the sedative effects to restore respiratory function. Placing the client in a prone position (choice A) may worsen respiratory compromise. Implementing positive pressure ventilation (choice B) is not the first-line intervention for sedation-related respiratory depression. Performing nasopharyngeal suctioning (choice C) is not indicated as there are no signs of airway obstruction requiring suctioning.

5. A nurse is preparing to administer lactated Ringer's (LR) 1,000 mL IV to infuse over 8 hr. The drop factor of the manual IV tubing is 10 gtt/mL. The nurse should set the manual IV infusion to deliver how many gtt/min?

• A. 19 gtt/min
• B. 20 gtt/min
• C. 21 gtt/min
• D. 22 gtt/min

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Calculation: 1000 mL / 480 minutes × 10 gtt/mL = 20.83, rounded to 21 gtt/min. This ensures proper IV fluid administration over the prescribed time. Choice C is the correct answer as it reflects the accurate calculation based on the given parameters. Choice A is incorrect because it does not accurately calculate the infusion rate. Choice B is incorrect as it does not consider the precise calculation required. Choice D is incorrect as it deviates from the correct calculation.

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