a nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client who has heart failure and a prescription for furosemide 20 mg po two times daily which of the foll
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PN ATI Capstone Adult Medical-Surgical 1 Quiz

1. A nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client with heart failure and a prescription for furosemide 20 mg PO twice daily. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include in the teaching?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: "Increase intake of high-potassium foods." Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can lead to hypokalemia, a condition characterized by low potassium levels. To prevent this adverse effect, the client should increase their intake of high-potassium foods. Choice A is incorrect because furosemide typically leads to decreased blood pressure, not increased. Choice C is incorrect because furosemide is used to reduce swelling, not increase it. Choice D is incorrect because the second dose of furosemide should be taken in the morning to prevent nocturia.

2. A nurse is planning care for a client who has chronic kidney disease. Which finding indicates the need for hemodialysis?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. A serum creatinine level of 5 mg/dL is significantly elevated and indicates the need for hemodialysis to help filter waste products from the blood. Elevated creatinine levels suggest impaired kidney function and the inability to effectively filter waste from the body. Choices A, B, and D are within normal ranges and do not indicate the need for immediate hemodialysis in a client with chronic kidney disease.

3. A healthcare provider is reviewing the health history of an older adult who has a hip fracture. The healthcare provider should identify what as a risk factor for developing pressure injuries?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Urinary incontinence is a significant risk factor for skin breakdown and pressure injuries. It can lead to prolonged skin exposure to moisture and irritants, increasing the susceptibility to pressure injuries. Advanced age (Choice A) is a risk factor due to changes in skin integrity and decreased tissue viability, but it is not as direct a risk factor as urinary incontinence. Regular skin assessments (Choice C) are important for early detection and prevention but are not a risk factor themselves. Adequate hydration (Choice D) is essential for overall skin health but is not a direct risk factor for pressure injuries.

4. A client expresses anxiety about an upcoming surgery. What should the nurse do?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Asking the client to describe their feelings is the most appropriate action for the nurse to take. This allows the nurse to understand the specific concerns and anxieties the client is experiencing. Choice A may invalidate the client's feelings and not address the root cause of anxiety. Choice C may come across as dismissive and oversimplified. While providing information about the surgery (Choice D) is important, addressing the client's emotional state is the initial priority in this situation.

5. A nurse is assessing a client who had a stroke and is showing signs of dysphagia. Which finding indicates this condition?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Abnormal mouth movements are a key sign of dysphagia, a condition commonly seen in stroke clients. Dysphagia refers to difficulty swallowing, which can manifest as abnormal movements of the mouth during eating or drinking. In stroke patients, dysphagia increases the risk of aspiration, where food or liquids enter the airway instead of the esophagus, leading to potential complications such as pneumonia. Choices B, C, and D are not directly indicative of dysphagia. Inability to stand without assistance may indicate motor deficits, paralysis of the right arm suggests a neurological impairment, and loss of appetite can be a non-specific symptom in many conditions but does not specifically point to dysphagia.

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