Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is caring for a client who has mild anxiety. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

• A. Feelings of dread
• B. Rapid speech
• C. Purposeless activity
• D. Heightened perceptual field

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In mild anxiety, the client is expected to have a heightened perceptual field. This means that their perception is increased, enhancing their awareness and ability to concentrate. Feelings of dread (Choice A) are more common in moderate to severe anxiety. Rapid speech (Choice B) and purposeless activity (Choice C) are more indicative of moderate to severe anxiety where the individual may exhibit signs of agitation and restlessness.

2. When caring for a client prescribed azithromycin, what should the nurse monitor?

• A. Liver function
• B. Signs of diarrhea
• C. Blood glucose levels
• D. Serum electrolytes

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor signs of diarrhea when a client is prescribed azithromycin. Azithromycin is known to cause gastrointestinal side effects, particularly diarrhea. Monitoring for diarrhea is crucial to assess the client's response to the medication and to prevent complications such as dehydration. Monitoring liver function (choice A), blood glucose levels (choice C), and serum electrolytes (choice D) are not typically indicated specifically for clients prescribed azithromycin unless there are other specific reasons or conditions that warrant such monitoring.

3. A healthcare provider is assessing a client who has severe dehydration. Which finding indicates effective treatment?

• A. Sunken anterior fontanel
• B. Tenting skin turgor
• C. Flat anterior fontanel
• D. Hyperpnea

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A flat anterior fontanel indicates effective treatment for dehydration in infants. Dehydration often causes sunken fontanels, so when the anterior fontanel becomes flat, it suggests that rehydration has occurred. Sunken anterior fontanel (Choice A) is a sign of dehydration, not effective treatment. Tenting skin turgor (Choice B) is also a sign of dehydration, indicating poor skin turgor. Hyperpnea (Choice D) is increased depth and rate of breathing and is not directly related to the hydration status of the client.

4. While assessing four clients, which client data should be reported to the provider?

• A. Client with pleurisy who reports a pain level of 6 out of 10 when coughing
• B. Client with 110 mL of serosanguineous fluid from a JP drain
• C. Client 4 hours postoperative with a heart rate of 98 bpm
• D. Client undergoing chemotherapy with an absolute neutrophil count of 75/mm³

Correct answer: D

Rationale: An absolute neutrophil count of 75/mm³ is critically low and places the client at high risk for infection, necessitating immediate intervention. Neutropenia increases susceptibility to infections, making it essential to report this finding promptly. The other options, such as pain level in pleurisy, drainage amount from a drain, and heart rate postoperatively, are important but do not indicate an immediate life-threatening condition that requires urgent provider notification.

5. A healthcare professional is assessing a client for signs of anemia. Which of the following findings should the healthcare professional expect?

• A. Increased energy levels
• B. Pale skin
• C. Elevated blood pressure
• D. Decreased heart rate

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Pale skin is a common sign of anemia due to reduced hemoglobin levels, leading to decreased oxygen delivery to tissues. This results in skin pallor. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Anemia typically causes fatigue and decreased energy levels (not increased), low blood pressure (not elevated), and tachycardia (increased heart rate) to compensate for the decreased oxygen-carrying capacity of the blood.

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