Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is caring for a client who has mild anxiety. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

• A. Feelings of dread
• B. Rapid speech
• C. Purposeless activity
• D. Heightened perceptual field

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In mild anxiety, the client is expected to have a heightened perceptual field. This means that their perception is increased, enhancing their awareness and ability to concentrate. Feelings of dread (Choice A) are more common in moderate to severe anxiety. Rapid speech (Choice B) and purposeless activity (Choice C) are more indicative of moderate to severe anxiety where the individual may exhibit signs of agitation and restlessness.

2. A nurse is preparing to administer a dose of enoxaparin. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Administer it intramuscularly
• B. Monitor APTT levels
• C. Give it in the abdomen
• D. Administer rapidly

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is to give enoxaparin in the abdomen. Enoxaparin is usually administered subcutaneously in the abdomen to avoid muscle irritation. Choice A is incorrect because enoxaparin should not be administered intramuscularly. Choice B is incorrect as monitoring APTT levels is not directly related to administering enoxaparin. Choice D is incorrect as enoxaparin should be administered slowly to prevent bruising or bleeding at the injection site.

3. A nurse is performing a focused assessment for a client who has dysrhythmias. What indicates ineffective cardiac contractions?

• A. Increased blood pressure
• B. Pulse deficit
• C. Normal heart rate
• D. Elevated oxygen saturation

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Pulse deficit. A pulse deficit is a significant finding in clients with dysrhythmias, indicating ineffective cardiac contractions. Pulse deficit occurs when there is a difference between the apical and radial pulses, suggesting that not all heart contractions are strong enough to produce a pulse that can be felt peripherally. Increased blood pressure (choice A) may occur due to various factors and is not a direct indicator of ineffective cardiac contractions. Similarly, a normal heart rate (choice C) and elevated oxygen saturation (choice D) do not specifically point towards ineffective cardiac contractions; they can be present in individuals with dysrhythmias but do not directly indicate ineffective cardiac contractions.

4. A charge nurse is discussing HIPAA with a newly licensed nurse. Which action should the charge nurse include in the teaching as an example of a HIPAA violation?

• A. Faxing a patient’s discharge summary to the pharmacy.
• B. Emailing the patient’s positive hepatitis results from an unencrypted server.
• C. Discussing the patient’s care plan during bedside rounds.
• D. Placing the patient’s chart in a secure location at the nurse’s station.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Emailing patient information from an unencrypted server violates HIPAA because it exposes sensitive health information to potential breaches. Choice A is not a violation as long as the fax is sent to the correct recipient. Choice C is not a violation if the discussion is done discreetly and within an appropriate setting. Choice D is a recommended practice to ensure patient information is kept secure.

5. A nurse is teaching a client who is taking prednisone about the adverse effects of this medication. Which of the following should the nurse emphasize?

• A. Weight gain
• B. Insomnia
• C. Hyperglycemia
• D. Hypertension

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct adverse effect of prednisone that the nurse should emphasize is hyperglycemia. Prednisone is known to increase blood sugar levels, leading to hyperglycemia. While weight gain and other metabolic changes are possible side effects, hyperglycemia is a more critical concern due to the risk of uncontrolled blood sugar levels and its impact on overall health. Insomnia and hypertension are not typically associated with prednisone use, making them less relevant to emphasize during client education.

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