Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is caring for a patient whose family member requests to view the patient’s medical record. What response should the nurse make?

• A. “The patient should provide permission to share the records with you.”
• B. “You can view the records if the provider approves it.”
• C. “I will allow you to see the chart if the patient is unable to give consent.”
• D. “You need to fill out a request form.”

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In this scenario, the nurse should respond by indicating that the patient needs to provide permission to share their medical records with the family member. Patient confidentiality is a fundamental principle in healthcare, and sharing medical records without the patient's consent is a violation of privacy. Choice B is incorrect because the provider's approval alone is not sufficient to share medical records, as patient consent is crucial. Choice C is incorrect because viewing the patient's chart without the patient's consent is not appropriate. Choice D is incorrect as filling out a request form does not address the issue of patient consent, which is essential for sharing medical information.

2. A nurse is caring for a client who is taking warfarin. The nurse notes that the client has a new prescription for amoxicillin. Which of the following laboratory tests should the nurse monitor closely?

• A. Serum potassium
• B. Prothrombin time (PT)
• C. Serum sodium
• D. Blood glucose

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Prothrombin time (PT). Amoxicillin can potentiate the effects of warfarin, increasing the risk of bleeding. Monitoring the prothrombin time (PT) is crucial in this situation to assess the client's clotting ability. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because amoxicillin's interaction with warfarin does not directly impact serum potassium, serum sodium, or blood glucose levels.

3. A nurse is assessing a client who has a blood glucose level of 250 mg/dL. Which of the following clinical manifestations is associated with this finding?

• A. Confusion
• B. Thirst
• C. Diaphoresis
• D. Shakiness

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Corrected Detailed Rationale: A blood glucose level of 250 mg/dL indicates hyperglycemia. Thirst (polydipsia) is a common clinical manifestation associated with hyperglycemia. The body tries to compensate for the high blood sugar by increasing fluid intake. Confusion (choice A) is more commonly associated with hypoglycemia, not hyperglycemia. Diaphoresis (choice C) and shakiness (choice D) are typical manifestations of hypoglycemia, not hyperglycemia. Therefore, the correct answer is increased thirst (polydipsia) in response to the elevated blood glucose level.

4. A patient with chronic kidney disease reports feeling light-headed after taking their medication. What should the nurse instruct the patient to do?

• A. Take the medication with food
• B. Take the medication at bedtime
• C. Stand up slowly to prevent dizziness
• D. Increase fluid intake

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Patients with chronic kidney disease are prone to orthostatic hypotension, which can cause dizziness. To prevent this, the nurse should instruct the patient to stand up slowly. Options A, B, and D do not directly address the issue of orthostatic hypotension and dizziness in this scenario.

5. A nurse is assessing a client who is at 31 weeks of gestation. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as an indication of a potential prenatal complication?

• A. Periodic tingling of fingers
• B. Absence of clonus
• C. Leg cramps
• D. Blurred vision

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Blurred vision can be an indicator of serious conditions such as preeclampsia, which involves hypertension and can lead to significant maternal and fetal complications. Periodic tingling of fingers, absence of clonus, and leg cramps are common discomforts during pregnancy but are not typically associated with serious prenatal complications like preeclampsia. Therefore, the correct answer is D.

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