Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is planning a staff education program to review nursing interventions for patients who have kidney failure. What source should the nurse identify as the best source for obtaining evidence-based practice information?

• A. A recent peer-reviewed nursing research article
• B. A website for a nursing association
• C. A textbook published 5 years ago
• D. An expert opinion from a seasoned nurse

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: A recent peer-reviewed nursing research article. Peer-reviewed research articles provide the most current and reliable evidence-based practice information for clinical care. Choice B, a website for a nursing association, may have valuable information but may not always guarantee the highest level of evidence. Choice C, a textbook published 5 years ago, may not reflect the most up-to-date practices and guidelines. Choice D, an expert opinion from a seasoned nurse, though valuable, is not as reliable as evidence derived from peer-reviewed research articles.

2. A nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client with a new prescription for furosemide. Which client statement indicates a need for further teaching?

• A. I will take my morning pills with food or milk.
• B. I will weigh myself every day.
• C. I will notify the nurse if I have muscle cramps.
• D. I will limit my intake of fish.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Furosemide is a diuretic that does not require a reduction in fish consumption. Therefore, the statement 'I will limit my intake of fish' indicates a misunderstanding of dietary considerations. Choices A, B, and C are all appropriate actions related to furosemide therapy. Taking pills with food or milk can help reduce stomach upset, daily weight monitoring is crucial due to the diuretic effect of furosemide, and notifying the nurse about muscle cramps is important as it can be a sign of electrolyte imbalance, a potential side effect of furosemide.

3. A client receiving opiates for pain management was initially sedated but is no longer sedated after three days. What action should the nurse take?

• A. Initiate additional non-pharmacological pain management techniques.
• B. Notify the provider that a dosage adjustment is needed.
• C. No action is needed at this time.
• D. Contact the provider to request an alternate method of pain management.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: No action is needed at this time. Sedation from opiates commonly decreases as the body adjusts to the medication. It is a positive sign that the sedation has resolved, indicating the client is tolerating the current dosage well. Initiating additional non-pharmacological pain management techniques (Choice A) is unnecessary since the current pain management regimen is effective. Notifying the provider for a dosage adjustment (Choice B) is premature and not indicated when the sedation has resolved. Contacting the provider to request an alternate method of pain management (Choice D) is excessive and not warranted in this situation where the client is no longer sedated and the current pain management plan is effective.

4. A nurse is assessing a client who has schizophrenia and is experiencing negative symptoms. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

• A. Hallucinations
• B. Delusions
• C. Flat affect
• D. Paranoia

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Flat affect. Negative symptoms of schizophrenia involve deficits in normal emotional responses or other thought processes. These symptoms include a flat affect (reduced emotional expression), social withdrawal, and avolition (lack of motivation). Hallucinations and delusions are characteristic of positive symptoms, which involve the presence of abnormal behaviors or experiences. Paranoia is more associated with delusions rather than negative symptoms.

5. A nurse is preparing to administer 2.5 mL of medication intramuscularly to an adult client. Which site is safest for the nurse to use?

• A. Ventrogluteal
• B. Dorsogluteal
• C. Vastus lateralis
• D. Rectus femoris

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Ventrogluteal.' The ventrogluteal site is recommended for intramuscular injections in adults because it is free of major blood vessels and nerves, reducing the risk of injury or complications. Choice B, 'Dorsogluteal,' is not recommended due to the proximity of the sciatic nerve and major blood vessels. Choices C and D, 'Vastus lateralis' and 'Rectus femoris,' are sites commonly used for intramuscular injections but are more suitable for pediatric or specific population groups, not typically for adults.

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