a nurse is caring for a newborn who is small for gestational age sga which of the following findings is associated with this condition
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ATI Maternal Newborn

1. A newborn is small for gestational age (SGA). Which of the following findings is associated with this condition?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Wide skull sutures are a common finding in newborns who are small for gestational age (SGA) due to reduced intrauterine growth. This occurs because the skull bones do not grow at the same rate as the brain, leading to wider sutures. Moist skin, a protruding abdomen, and a gray umbilical cord are not typically associated with being small for gestational age.

2. A healthcare professional in a provider's office is reviewing the medical record of a client who is in her first trimester of pregnancy. Which of the following findings should the healthcare professional identify as a risk factor for the development of preeclampsia?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Pregestational diabetes mellitus is a significant risk factor for the development of preeclampsia in pregnant individuals. Preeclampsia is more common in women with preexisting conditions such as diabetes, hypertension, renal disease, lupus, or rheumatoid arthritis. Singleton pregnancy, a BMI of 20, or maternal age of 32 years are not considered significant risk factors for developing preeclampsia.

3. A client who is at 7 weeks of gestation is experiencing nausea and vomiting in the morning. Which of the following information should the nurse include?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: During early pregnancy, nausea and vomiting in the morning are common symptoms. Eating crackers or plain toast before getting out of bed can help manage morning nausea by stabilizing blood sugar levels. This simple and easily digestible snack can alleviate symptoms by providing some sustenance to the stomach before fully waking up and moving around. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Waking up during the night to eat a snack may disrupt sleep patterns, skipping breakfast can worsen symptoms by allowing the stomach to remain empty for longer periods, and eating a large evening meal may exacerbate morning nausea due to increased stomach contents.

4. Which of the following medications should the provider prescribe for a client with gonorrhea?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Ceftriaxone is the preferred medication to treat gonorrhea, a bacterial infection. It is essential to promptly treat gonorrhea to prevent complications such as pelvic inflammatory disease, infertility, and the spread of the infection to others. Fluconazole is used for fungal infections, Metronidazole treats certain bacterial and parasitic infections, and Zidovudine is an antiretroviral medication used in HIV treatment; none of these are appropriate for gonorrhea.

5. A client is postpartum and has idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP). Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP) is characterized by an autoimmune response that leads to a decreased platelet count. This condition increases the risk of bleeding due to the low platelet levels. Monitoring the platelet count is crucial in managing ITP, as it helps determine the risk of bleeding and guides treatment decisions. Therefore, the correct finding to expect in a client with ITP is a decreased platelet count. Choice B, an increased erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR), is not typically associated with ITP. Choice C, decreased megakaryocytes, may be seen in conditions like aplastic anemia but are not a typical finding in ITP. Choice D, an increased white blood cell count (WBC), is not a characteristic feature of ITP.

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