ATI LPN
PN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment A
1. A nurse is caring for a group of clients. Which of the following clients should the nurse assign to an assistive personnel (AP)?
- A. Client who has chronic obstructive pulmonary disease and needs guidance with incentive spirometry
- B. Client who has awoken following a bronchoscopy and requests a drink
- C. Client who had a myocardial infarction 3 days ago and reports chest discomfort
- D. Client who had a cerebrovascular accident 2 days ago and needs help toileting
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because the client who had a cerebrovascular accident 2 days ago and needs help toileting is stable and the task is appropriate for delegation to an assistive personnel (AP). Choices A, B, and C involve clients with more complex care needs that require the expertise of a nurse. Choice A involves providing guidance with incentive spirometry, which requires specialized knowledge and assessment skills. Choice B involves a client who has just undergone a bronchoscopy, so close monitoring is essential to assess for any complications. Choice C involves a client who had a myocardial infarction 3 days ago and is reporting chest discomfort, which could indicate a potential cardiac issue requiring immediate nursing assessment and intervention.
2. A client with a new diagnosis of heart failure is prescribed furosemide. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
- A. Take the medication in the morning.
- B. Increase intake of potassium-rich foods.
- C. Report a decrease in urine output.
- D. Expect swelling in the lower extremities.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is to instruct the client to increase their intake of potassium-rich foods. Furosemide, a loop diuretic, can lead to potassium loss, which may cause hypokalemia. Increasing potassium intake can help prevent this electrolyte imbalance. Choice A is incorrect because furosemide is usually taken in the morning to prevent sleep disturbances due to increased urination. Choice C is incorrect because a decrease in urine output could indicate a problem and should be reported immediately. Choice D is incorrect because furosemide is used to reduce swelling in the body, including the lower extremities, so expecting swelling is not appropriate.
3. A nurse is caring for a client who has a prescription for enalapril. The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following adverse effects of this medication?
- A. Bradycardia
- B. Hyperkalemia
- C. Hyperglycemia
- D. Tinnitus
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Hyperkalemia. Enalapril, an ACE inhibitor, can lead to hyperkalemia by reducing aldosterone levels, which results in potassium retention. Bradycardia (Choice A) is not a common adverse effect of enalapril. Hyperglycemia (Choice C) and tinnitus (Choice D) are also not typically associated with enalapril use.
4. A postpartum client with AB negative blood whose newborn is B positive requires what intervention?
- A. Administer Rh immune globulin within 72 hours of delivery
- B. Administer Rh immune globulin at the 6-week postpartum visit
- C. No Rh immune globulin is needed since this is the second pregnancy
- D. Both mother and baby need Rh immune globulin
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct intervention is to administer Rh immune globulin within 72 hours of delivery. This is essential to prevent the mother from forming antibodies against Rh-positive blood, which could cause complications in future pregnancies. Choice B is incorrect as the administration should be immediate postpartum. Choice C is incorrect as Rh immune globulin is needed for each Rh-incompatible pregnancy. Choice D is incorrect as only the mother, who is Rh-negative, needs Rh immune globulin.
5. A nurse is conducting an infertility assessment for a newly admitted client. Which of the following factors should the nurse identify as affecting the client's fertility?
- A. Premature ovarian failure
- B. Renal calculi
- C. Dysmenorrhea
- D. Recurrent urinary tract infection
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Premature ovarian failure should be identified as affecting the client's fertility. It leads to reduced or absent ovarian function, resulting in decreased estrogen production and irregular menstrual cycles, which can impact fertility. Renal calculi, dysmenorrhea, and recurrent urinary tract infections do not directly affect fertility and are not typically associated with infertility assessments. Renal calculi are kidney stones that do not directly relate to reproductive health. Dysmenorrhea is painful menstruation but does not necessarily indicate infertility. Recurrent urinary tract infections primarily affect the urinary system and do not directly impact fertility.
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