Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is reviewing a client's medical record and notes that the client is taking tamoxifen. The nurse should identify that tamoxifen is used to treat which of the following conditions?

• A. Non-Hodgkin's lymphoma
• B. Endometriosis
• C. Breast cancer
• D. Polycystic ovary syndrome

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Tamoxifen is an anti-estrogen medication primarily used to treat hormone receptor-positive breast cancer. It works by blocking estrogen receptors in breast tissue, slowing the growth of tumors that require estrogen to grow. Choice A, Non-Hodgkin's lymphoma, is incorrect because tamoxifen is not indicated for its treatment. Choice B, Endometriosis, is incorrect as tamoxifen is not used for this condition. Choice D, Polycystic ovary syndrome, is also incorrect since tamoxifen is not a treatment for this syndrome.

2. A healthcare professional is assessing a client for signs of stroke. Which of the following should the healthcare professional look for?

• A. Slurred speech
• B. Increased appetite
• C. Elevated heart rate
• D. Hyperactivity

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Question: A healthcare professional is assessing a client for signs of stroke. Slurred speech is a common sign of stroke and should be assessed immediately. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because increased appetite, elevated heart rate, and hyperactivity are not typical signs of a stroke.

3. A client tells the nurse that she suspects she is pregnant because she is able to feel the baby move. The nurse knows that this is a:

• A. Presumptive sign of pregnancy
• B. Probable sign of pregnancy
• C. Positive sign of pregnancy
• D. Possible sign of pregnancy

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Presumptive sign of pregnancy. Quickening, or the sensation of fetal movement, is considered a presumptive sign of pregnancy. It is not definitive because other conditions, such as gas or intestinal movement, can mimic the feeling of fetal movement. Choice B, Probable sign of pregnancy, refers to signs that make the nurse reasonably certain that a woman is pregnant, such as a positive pregnancy test. Choice C, Positive sign of pregnancy, includes signs like hearing fetal heart tones or visualizing the fetus on ultrasound, which definitively confirm pregnancy. Choice D, Possible sign of pregnancy, is a vague term and does not specifically relate to any pregnancy sign.

4. A healthcare professional is assessing a client for potential complications after surgery. Which of the following should the healthcare professional monitor for?

• A. Decreased urine output
• B. Increased appetite
• C. Improved mobility
• D. Normal temperature

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Decreased urine output can indicate renal complications or dehydration, which are common post-surgical complications. Monitoring urine output is crucial for detecting early signs of kidney dysfunction or fluid imbalances. Increased appetite, improved mobility, and normal temperature are not typical signs of immediate post-surgical complications and would not be the priority for monitoring in this case.

5. A client is being taught about the use of digoxin. Which of the following should be included?

• A. Monitor for low blood pressure
• B. It can cause bradycardia
• C. Take it with calcium supplements
• D. It has no side effects

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'It can cause bradycardia.' Digoxin can cause bradycardia as one of its side effects. Clients should be educated about this potential effect and instructed to monitor their heart rate before taking the medication. Choice A is incorrect because digoxin is more likely to cause arrhythmias than low blood pressure. Choice C is incorrect as calcium supplements can interfere with the absorption of digoxin. Choice D is incorrect as digoxin has various side effects, and clients should be aware of them.

Similar Questions