Nursing Elites

1. When a nurse is interviewing a client who is requesting oral contraceptives, which finding in the client’s history is a contraindication to combined oral contraceptives?

• A. Thyroid disease
• B. Allergy to penicillin
• C. Impaired liver function
• D. Abnormal blood glucose levels

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Impaired liver function. Impaired liver function is a contraindication to the use of oral contraceptives because they are metabolized in the liver. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Thyroid disease, allergy to penicillin, and abnormal blood glucose levels are not contraindications to combined oral contraceptives.

2. A nurse is caring for a client who is in the third trimester of pregnancy and has gestational diabetes. Which of the following complications is the fetus at risk for?

• A. Macrosomia
• B. Hydrocephalus
• C. Cleft palate
• D. Spina bifida

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Macrosomia. Gestational diabetes can result in fetal macrosomia, a condition where the baby grows larger than normal due to excess glucose in the mother's blood. This increases the risk of complications during delivery. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Hydrocephalus is an abnormal accumulation of cerebrospinal fluid within the brain. Cleft palate is a congenital condition where there is a split or opening in the roof of the mouth. Spina bifida is a neural tube defect characterized by the incomplete development of the spinal cord or its coverings.

3. A client is being treated with thiazide diuretics. What should the nurse monitor regularly?

• A. Hyperkalemia
• B. Hypokalemia
• C. Hyponatremia
• D. Hypoglycemia

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Thiazide diuretics are known to cause hypokalemia by increasing potassium excretion in the urine. Therefore, the nurse should monitor the client for low potassium levels. Hyperkalemia (Choice A) is not typically associated with thiazide diuretics. Hyponatremia (Choice C) is more commonly linked with thiazide diuretics due to increased sodium excretion. Hypoglycemia (Choice D) is not a usual concern when a client is receiving thiazide diuretics.

4. A healthcare provider is caring for a client with severe preeclampsia. Which of the following medications should the healthcare provider anticipate administering?

• A. Magnesium sulfate
• B. Oxytocin
• C. Misoprostol
• D. Nifedipine

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Magnesium sulfate is the correct answer as it is administered to prevent seizures in clients with severe preeclampsia. It acts as a central nervous system depressant and is the first-line treatment for eclampsia prevention. Oxytocin (Choice B) is used to induce or augment labor, not indicated specifically for preeclampsia. Misoprostol (Choice C) is used for labor induction and postpartum hemorrhage, not typically indicated for preeclampsia. Nifedipine (Choice D) is a calcium channel blocker used for managing hypertension in pregnancy but is not the first-line treatment for preventing seizures in severe preeclampsia.

5. A nurse in a mental health facility receives a change-of-shift report on four clients. Which of the following clients should the nurse assess first?

• A. Client placed in restraints for aggressive behavior
• B. A new client with a history of a 4.5 kg weight loss in the past two months
• C. Client who received a PRN dose of haloperidol 2 hours ago for increased anxiety
• D. Client who will be receiving his first ECT treatment today

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A client in restraints due to aggressive behavior needs immediate assessment to ensure safety and well-being. The nurse should assess this client first to address any potential risks, such as circulation issues, skin integrity problems, and ongoing agitation. Choices B, C, and D do not present immediate safety concerns that require urgent assessment compared to a client restrained for aggressive behavior.

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