Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is caring for a client who is postoperative following a thyroidectomy. The nurse should monitor for which of the following findings as a sign of hypocalcemia?

• A. Nausea
• B. Tingling in the fingers
• C. Numbness in the toes
• D. Sweating

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Tingling in the fingers is a classic sign of hypocalcemia. Following a thyroidectomy, hypocalcemia can occur due to damage to the parathyroid glands, which regulate calcium levels in the body. Nausea, numbness in the toes, and sweating are not specific signs of hypocalcemia. Numbness and tingling usually start in the hands and feet due to their increased nerve sensitivity to low calcium levels.

2. Which of the following situations can be identified as an ethical dilemma?

• A. A nurse demonstrates signs of chemical impairment
• B. A family has conflicting feelings about tube feeding for their terminally ill father
• C. A nurse overhears a colleague threatening to restrain a patient if they do not stay in bed
• D. A client with terminal cancer hesitates to name their spouse as power of attorney

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Ethical dilemmas involve conflicting values or feelings. In this situation, the family is conflicted about tube feeding for their terminally ill father, which presents a moral and ethical challenge. Choices A, C, and D do not represent ethical dilemmas. Choice A involves a nurse's impairment, which is a different issue. Choice C involves a nurse's observation of a colleague's threat, which is a patient safety concern. Choice D involves a client's hesitation in naming a spouse as power of attorney, which is a legal and decision-making issue, not necessarily an ethical dilemma.

3. What is the nurse's role in preoperative patient care?

• A. Provide patient education and ensure NPO status
• B. Ensure that informed consent is obtained
• C. Obtain the patient's health history
• D. Confirm the patient's surgical site

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The nurse plays a crucial role in preoperative patient care by providing education and ensuring NPO (nothing by mouth) status. This helps prepare the patient for surgery by ensuring they understand the procedure, what to expect, and also by following necessary preoperative fasting guidelines. While obtaining the patient's health history (choice C) is important for overall patient assessment, it is typically done during the preoperative assessment but does not specifically pertain to the nurse's role. Ensuring informed consent (choice B) is primarily the responsibility of the healthcare provider performing the procedure. Confirming the patient's surgical site (choice D) is usually the responsibility of the surgical team and is done immediately before the surgery to prevent errors.

4. A client who is to undergo an exercise stress test is being taught by a nurse. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?

• A. I should eat a large meal 2 hours before the test
• B. I should avoid drinking water before the test
• C. I should stop taking my blood pressure medication
• D. I should report any chest pain during the test

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: 'I should report any chest pain during the test.' This statement indicates an understanding of the teaching because reporting chest pain during an exercise stress test is crucial as it may signify cardiac distress. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Eating a large meal 2 hours before the test is not recommended as it may affect the results. Avoiding drinking water before the test is also not advisable as staying hydrated is important. Stopping blood pressure medication without medical advice can be dangerous, especially before a stress test.

5. A client is receiving phenytoin for management of grand mal seizures and has a new prescription for isoniazid and rifampin. Which of the following should the nurse conclude if the client develops ataxia and incoordination?

• A. The client is experiencing an adverse reaction to rifampin.
• B. The client's seizure disorder is no longer under control.
• C. The client is showing evidence of phenytoin toxicity.
• D. The client is having adverse effects due to combination antimicrobial therapy.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Ataxia and incoordination are signs of phenytoin toxicity rather than adverse reactions to rifampin or isoniazid. These symptoms indicate that the client is experiencing an adverse effect of phenytoin, requiring a dose adjustment. Choice A is incorrect because rifampin is not typically associated with ataxia and incoordination. Choice B is incorrect as the development of ataxia and incoordination does not necessarily mean the seizure disorder is no longer under control. Choice D is incorrect as the symptoms are more indicative of phenytoin toxicity rather than adverse effects of combination antimicrobial therapy.

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