Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is caring for a client who repeatedly refuses meals. The nurse overhears an assistive personnel telling the client, “If you don’t eat, I’ll put restraints on your wrists and feed you.” The nurse should intervene and explain to the AP that this statement constitutes which of the following torts?

• A. Assault
• B. Battery
• C. Malpractice
• D. Negligence

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Assault. Assault is the act of threatening a client with harm, such as the threat of using restraints to force-feed the client, even if no physical contact occurs. In this scenario, the statement made by the assistive personnel constitutes assault because it involves the threat of harm. Choice B, Battery, involves actual physical contact without the client's consent, which is not present in the scenario. Choice C, Malpractice, refers to professional negligence or misconduct, not a direct threat to the client. Choice D, Negligence, involves failure to provide reasonable care that results in harm, which is not applicable in this context.

2. A nurse is preparing to administer a client's first dose of a new antibiotic. Which of the following is the priority nursing action?

• A. Assess the client's allergies.
• B. Monitor the client's vital signs.
• C. Inform the client of potential side effects.
• D. Obtain the client's informed consent.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Assessing allergies before administering a new medication is crucial as it helps prevent potentially life-threatening allergic reactions like anaphylaxis. While monitoring vital signs and informing the client of side effects are important nursing actions, assessing allergies takes precedence to ensure the client's safety. Informed consent is necessary for the treatment process, but assessing allergies is the priority before administering any new medication.

3. A client has been prescribed albuterol. Which of the following is a priority adverse effect the nurse should monitor?

• A. Tachycardia
• B. Bradycardia
• C. Dizziness
• D. Hypertension

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Albuterol, a beta-2 adrenergic agonist, can lead to tachycardia due to its stimulant effect on beta-2 receptors in the heart. Monitoring for tachycardia is crucial as it can be a sign of excessive sympathetic stimulation and may lead to severe complications. Bradycardia, dizziness, and hypertension are less likely adverse effects of albuterol, making them lower priority for monitoring in this context.

4. A nurse is caring for a client receiving heparin. Which of the following should the nurse monitor?

• A. INR levels
• B. APTT levels
• C. Blood glucose levels
• D. Liver function tests

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Heparin therapy requires monitoring of activated partial thromboplastin time (APTT) to ensure therapeutic levels. APTT reflects the intrinsic pathway of the clotting cascade and is used to assess the effectiveness and safety of heparin therapy. Monitoring INR levels is more relevant for assessing warfarin therapy, not heparin. Blood glucose levels are monitored for clients with diabetes or those on medications affecting glucose levels. Liver function tests are used to assess liver health and are not directly related to monitoring heparin therapy.

5. A healthcare provider is providing education on the use of atorvastatin. Which of the following should be included?

• A. Monitor for liver function
• B. It can cause muscle pain
• C. It is safe to take during pregnancy
• D. Both A and B

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Atorvastatin requires monitoring for liver function due to its potential to cause liver abnormalities. It can also lead to muscle pain or weakness, a condition known as myopathy. Choice C is incorrect as atorvastatin is contraindicated during pregnancy due to potential harm to the fetus, making choices A and B the correct options to include in patient education.

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