Nursing Elites

1. A client presents with symptoms suggestive of rheumatoid arthritis. Which of the following laboratory tests should be ordered to confirm this diagnosis?

• A. Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR)
• B. Rheumatoid factor
• C. Antinuclear antibody
• D. Serum calcium

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Rheumatoid factor is a specific marker for rheumatoid arthritis. It is often elevated in clients with this autoimmune condition, helping to confirm the diagnosis. Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) and antinuclear antibody tests can be supportive but are not specific for rheumatoid arthritis. Serum calcium levels are not typically used to confirm this diagnosis.

2. A client is being educated by a nurse about the use of bupropion. Which of the following should be included?

• A. It can cause weight gain
• B. It may increase seizure risk
• C. It is an SSRI
• D. It has no side effects

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Bupropion may lower the seizure threshold, increasing the risk of seizures, especially in clients with a history of seizures. Choice A is incorrect because bupropion is associated with weight loss rather than weight gain. Choice C is incorrect as bupropion is not an SSRI; it is an aminoketone antidepressant. Choice D is incorrect as bupropion, like all medications, can have side effects, and it is essential for clients to be aware of them.

3. A client in labor has an epidural for pain control. Which of the following clinical manifestations is an adverse effect of epidural anesthesia?

• A. Polyuria
• B. Hypertension
• C. Pruritus
• D. Dry mouth

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Pruritus is a common adverse effect of epidural anesthesia, often due to the opioids administered with the epidural. It presents as itching on the skin and can cause significant discomfort to the client. Polyuria (excessive urination) and dry mouth are not typical adverse effects of epidural anesthesia. Hypertension is not commonly associated with epidural anesthesia; in fact, hypotension is a more frequent complication due to sympathetic blockade. Therefore, the correct answer is pruritus (choice C), as it is a known adverse effect of epidural anesthesia.

4. While in the cafeteria, a nurse overhears two APs discussing a hospitalized patient. What action should the nurse take?

• A. Report the incident to the supervisor.
• B. Join the conversation to intervene.
• C. Quietly tell the APs that this is not appropriate.
• D. Ignore the conversation.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take in this situation is to choose option C: 'Quietly tell the APs that this is not appropriate.' The nurse should immediately and discreetly address the situation, reminding the APs that discussing patient information in public areas violates confidentiality. Reporting the incident to the supervisor (option A) may be necessary if the behavior continues. Joining the conversation to intervene (option B) may escalate the situation and compromise patient confidentiality. Ignoring the conversation (option D) does not address the violation or prevent it from recurring.

5. A nurse is teaching a client who has hypertension about dietary modifications to help control blood pressure. Which of the following food choices should the nurse recommend as the best choice for the client to include in their diet?

• A. 1 packet of reconstituted dry onion soup
• B. 3 oz of lean cured ham
• C. 3 oz of chicken breast
• D. 1/2 cup of canned baked beans

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A low sodium diet is recommended for a client who has hypertension. Therefore, the nurse should recommend 3 oz of chicken breast as the best choice for the client's diet because it contains 30 – 90 mg of sodium. Choice A, 1 packet of reconstituted dry onion soup, and Choice B, 3 oz of lean cured ham, are high in sodium content, which is not suitable for a client with hypertension. Choice D, 1/2 cup of canned baked beans, is also high in sodium, making it a less suitable choice compared to 3 oz of chicken breast.

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