ATI LPN
PN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment B Quizlet
1. A client presents with symptoms suggestive of rheumatoid arthritis. Which of the following laboratory tests should be ordered to confirm this diagnosis?
- A. Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR)
- B. Rheumatoid factor
- C. Antinuclear antibody
- D. Serum calcium
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Rheumatoid factor is a specific marker for rheumatoid arthritis. It is often elevated in clients with this autoimmune condition, helping to confirm the diagnosis. Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) and antinuclear antibody tests can be supportive but are not specific for rheumatoid arthritis. Serum calcium levels are not typically used to confirm this diagnosis.
2. A client who is 8 hours postpartum asks the nurse if she will need to receive Rh immune globulin. The client is gravida 2, para 2, and her blood type is AB negative. The newborn’s blood type is B positive. Which of the following statements is appropriate?
- A. You only need to receive Rh immune globulin if you have a positive blood type.
- B. You should receive Rh immune globulin within 72 hours of delivery.
- C. Both you and your baby should receive Rh immune globulin at your 6-week appointment.
- D. Immune globulin is not necessary since this is your second pregnancy.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Rh-negative mothers who give birth to an Rh-positive baby should receive Rh immune globulin within 72 hours of delivery to prevent the development of antibodies in future pregnancies. Choice A is incorrect because Rh-negative individuals are the ones who require Rh immune globulin. Choice C is incorrect as the administration of Rh immune globulin is time-sensitive and not typically scheduled for a 6-week appointment. Choice D is incorrect because Rh immune globulin is necessary to prevent sensitization regardless of the number of pregnancies.
3. A healthcare professional is completing a nutritional assessment on a client and measures body mass index (BMI). Which of the following readings correlates with a BMI of an overweight client?
- A. 18.5
- B. 24.9
- C. 25
- D. 32
Correct answer: C
Rationale: A BMI of 25-29.9 is considered overweight. Therefore, a BMI of 25 correlates with an overweight client. A BMI of 18.5-24.9 indicates a healthy weight. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as they fall into the healthy weight or obese categories, not overweight.
4. A client with lactose intolerance, who has eliminated dairy products from the diet, should increase consumption of which of the following foods?
- A. Spinach
- B. Peanut butter
- C. Ground beef
- D. Carrots
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Spinach is the correct answer because it is a good source of calcium, which is important for clients with lactose intolerance who are not consuming dairy products. Peanut butter, ground beef, and carrots do not provide as much calcium as spinach and are not the best choices for meeting the calcium needs of clients with lactose intolerance.
5. A nurse is assessing a client who reports chest pain. Which of the following findings should cause the nurse to suspect a myocardial infarction?
- A. Pain improves with rest
- B. Pain radiates to the left arm.
- C. Pain worsens with deep breathing.
- D. Pain is relieved by antacids.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Radiating pain, especially to the left arm, is a classic sign of myocardial infarction. Pain that radiates to the left arm indicates cardiac involvement, making it a significant finding. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because chest pain that improves with rest, worsens with deep breathing, or is relieved by antacids is less likely to be associated with a myocardial infarction.
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