ATI LPN
PN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment Form A
1. A client is receiving magnesium sulfate for preeclampsia. Which finding indicates magnesium toxicity?
- A. Respiratory rate of 12/min
- B. Diminished deep tendon reflexes
- C. Urine output 40 mL/hr
- D. Systolic blood pressure of 140 mm Hg
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Diminished deep tendon reflexes are a sign of magnesium toxicity. Magnesium sulfate can depress the central nervous system, leading to decreased reflexes. Respiratory rate of 12/min, urine output 40 mL/hr, and systolic blood pressure of 140 mm Hg are not specific findings of magnesium toxicity. Respiratory depression, oliguria, and hypotension are more concerning signs that require immediate attention.
2. A nurse is planning to delegate client assignments to the assistive personnel. Which of the following tasks is appropriate for the nurse to delegate?
- A. Adjust the flow rate of the client’s oxygen tank
- B. Collect a urine sample
- C. Measure the client’s pain level
- D. Monitor blood glucose levels
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Collect a urine sample. Delegating this task to assistive personnel is appropriate as it falls within their scope of practice. Tasks like adjusting the flow rate of oxygen tanks, measuring pain levels, and monitoring blood glucose levels require clinical judgment and should be performed by a nurse. It is important for nurses to delegate tasks that align with the competencies of assistive personnel to ensure safe and effective patient care.
3. A nurse is teaching a client about the use of clopidogrel. Which of the following should be included?
- A. It is an anticoagulant
- B. Monitor for signs of bleeding
- C. It can be stopped abruptly
- D. Avoid foods rich in vitamin K
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Monitor for signs of bleeding.' Clopidogrel is an antiplatelet medication, not an anticoagulant. Clients taking clopidogrel should be monitored for signs of bleeding due to its antiplatelet effects. Choice A is incorrect because clopidogrel is not an anticoagulant. Choice C is incorrect as clopidogrel should not be stopped abruptly but as directed by a healthcare provider. Choice D is irrelevant since foods rich in vitamin K are more of a concern with anticoagulant medications like warfarin, not antiplatelet medications like clopidogrel.
4. A client is at high risk for iron deficiency anemia. Which of the following foods should the nurse instruct the client to increase in their diet?
- A. Yogurt
- B. Apples
- C. Raisins
- D. Cheddar cheese
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Raisins. Raisins are a good source of iron, which can help prevent or address iron deficiency anemia. Yogurt (Choice A) and cheddar cheese (Choice D) are not significant sources of iron. While apples (Choice B) are a healthy fruit, they do not contain as much iron as raisins.
5. A client has been prescribed raloxiphene. As the nurse, you know that raloxiphene is used to treat:
- A. Migraines
- B. Hypertension
- C. Osteoporosis
- D. Heart disease
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Raloxiphene (Evista) is a selective estrogen receptor modulator (SERM) used primarily to prevent and treat osteoporosis in postmenopausal women. It helps to maintain bone density and reduce the risk of fractures by mimicking the effects of estrogen on bone tissue. It is not indicated for the treatment of migraines, hypertension, or heart disease. Therefore, the correct answer is osteoporosis (Choice C). Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as raloxiphene is not used to treat migraines, hypertension, or heart disease.
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