ATI LPN
PN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment 2020 B
1. A client with cholecystitis has been prescribed a low-fat diet. Which of the following meal selections by the client indicates understanding of the education?
- A. Roast beef with gravy, mashed potatoes, ice cream
- B. Macaroni and cheese, salad, pudding
- C. Creamed chicken on a roll with peas
- D. Roast turkey, rice pilaf, green beans
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. Roast turkey is a lean protein option suitable for a low-fat diet. Rice pilaf and green beans are also low in fat. Choices A, B, and C contain high-fat ingredients like gravy, cheese, cream, and ice cream, which are not suitable for a low-fat diet.
2. A nurse is planning care for a client who has Alzheimer's disease and demonstrates confusion and wandering behavior. Which of the following should the nurse include in the plan of care?
- A. Place the client in seclusion when she is confused
- B. Request a prescription for PRN restraints when the client is wandering
- C. Dim the lighting in the client’s room
- D. Leave one side rail up on the client's bed
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is to leave one side rail up on the client's bed. This action can help prevent falls while allowing the client to get up safely when needed, reducing the risk of injury from wandering. Placing the client in seclusion (Choice A) is not appropriate as it can lead to increased agitation and distress. Requesting restraints (Choice B) should be avoided as it can increase the risk of injuries and is not recommended for clients with Alzheimer's. Dimming the lighting (Choice C) may increase confusion and disorientation in clients with Alzheimer's disease.
3. A client receiving IV moderate (conscious) sedation with midazolam has a respiratory rate of 9/min and is not responding to commands. Which of the following is an appropriate action by the nurse?
- A. Place the client in a prone position
- B. Implement positive pressure ventilation
- C. Perform nasopharyngeal suctioning
- D. Administer flumazenil
Correct answer: D
Rationale: In this scenario, the client is showing signs of respiratory depression and central nervous system depression due to midazolam sedation. Administering flumazenil is the correct action as it is the antidote for midazolam, a benzodiazepine, and can reverse the sedative effects to restore respiratory function. Placing the client in a prone position (choice A) may worsen respiratory compromise. Implementing positive pressure ventilation (choice B) is not the first-line intervention for sedation-related respiratory depression. Performing nasopharyngeal suctioning (choice C) is not indicated as there are no signs of airway obstruction requiring suctioning.
4. A nurse is teaching a client about the use of pantoprazole. Which of the following should be included?
- A. It should be taken on an empty stomach
- B. It reduces stomach acid production
- C. It can cause headache
- D. It should not be used with other antacids
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct information to include when teaching a client about pantoprazole is that it can cause headaches. Option A is incorrect because pantoprazole is usually taken before meals. Option B is not necessary information for the client to know. Option D is not directly related to the side effects of pantoprazole.
5. A client at 38 weeks gestation with a history of herpes simplex virus 2 is being admitted. Which of the following questions is most appropriate to ask the client?
- A. Have your membranes ruptured?
- B. Do you have any active lesions?
- C. Are you positive for beta strep?
- D. How far apart are your contractions?
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The most appropriate question to ask a client with a history of herpes simplex virus 2 at 38 weeks gestation is whether they have any active lesions. Active herpes lesions during labor can necessitate a cesarean delivery to prevent neonatal transmission. Asking about ruptured membranes (choice A), beta strep status (choice C), or contraction timing (choice D) is important but not the priority when managing a client with a history of herpes simplex virus 2 due to the high risk of neonatal transmission.
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