a nurse is caring for a client who is experiencing urinary incontinence which of the following recommendations should the nurse include in the teachin
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Nursing Elites

ATI LPN

PN ATI Capstone Maternal Newborn

1. A client is experiencing urinary incontinence, and a nurse is providing care. Which of the following recommendations should the nurse include in the teaching plan for this client?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct recommendation for a client experiencing urinary incontinence is to perform Kegel exercises regularly. These exercises help strengthen the pelvic floor muscles, improving bladder control and reducing urinary incontinence. Option A is incorrect because drinking large amounts of water before bedtime can worsen urinary incontinence by increasing urine production. Option C is incorrect as fiber is important for bowel health and limiting it may not be beneficial for the client. Option D is incorrect as caffeinated and carbonated beverages can irritate the bladder and worsen urinary incontinence, so they should be avoided.

2. A nurse is caring for a client who reports burning around the peripheral IV site. Which finding should the nurse identify as a manifestation of infiltration?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Edema at the IV site indicates that IV solution has leaked into the extravascular tissue, which is a sign of infiltration. Redness, warmth, and pain at the site are more indicative of phlebitis, not infiltration. Phlebitis is characterized by redness, warmth, and pain along the vein where the IV is placed, while infiltration involves the leaking of IV fluids into the surrounding tissue.

3. A nurse is preparing to administer a dose of warfarin. Which of the following should the nurse do?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to check INR levels. Before administering warfarin, it is crucial to check the INR levels to ensure they are within the therapeutic range. This helps to prevent complications such as bleeding or clotting. Choice B, administering it with food, is incorrect as warfarin should typically be taken on an empty stomach. Choice C, monitoring blood glucose, is unrelated to the administration of warfarin. Choice D, assessing liver function, is important but not the immediate action required before administering warfarin.

4. A nurse is assessing a client who is receiving chemotherapy and has stomatitis. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Red, open sores in the mouth. Stomatitis, a common side effect of chemotherapy, presents with red, open sores in the mouth, which can be painful and increase the risk of infection. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because stomatitis typically does not manifest as dry, cracked lips, bleeding gums, or foul-smelling breath.

5. A nurse is performing a focused assessment for a client who has dysrhythmias. What indicates ineffective cardiac contractions?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Pulse deficit. A pulse deficit is a significant finding in clients with dysrhythmias, indicating ineffective cardiac contractions. Pulse deficit occurs when there is a difference between the apical and radial pulses, suggesting that not all heart contractions are strong enough to produce a pulse that can be felt peripherally. Increased blood pressure (choice A) may occur due to various factors and is not a direct indicator of ineffective cardiac contractions. Similarly, a normal heart rate (choice C) and elevated oxygen saturation (choice D) do not specifically point towards ineffective cardiac contractions; they can be present in individuals with dysrhythmias but do not directly indicate ineffective cardiac contractions.

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