Nursing Elites

1. A client is experiencing urinary incontinence, and a nurse is providing care. Which of the following recommendations should the nurse include in the teaching plan for this client?

• A. Drink large amounts of water before bedtime
• B. Perform Kegel exercises regularly
• C. Limit fiber intake in the diet to avoid bowel irritation
• D. Increase intake of caffeinated and carbonated beverages

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct recommendation for a client experiencing urinary incontinence is to perform Kegel exercises regularly. These exercises help strengthen the pelvic floor muscles, improving bladder control and reducing urinary incontinence. Option A is incorrect because drinking large amounts of water before bedtime can worsen urinary incontinence by increasing urine production. Option C is incorrect as fiber is important for bowel health and limiting it may not be beneficial for the client. Option D is incorrect as caffeinated and carbonated beverages can irritate the bladder and worsen urinary incontinence, so they should be avoided.

2. A home health nurse is providing teaching to a family of a client who has seizure manifestations as a result of an inoperable brain tumor. What intervention should the nurse include in the teaching?

• A. Administer antiseizure medications promptly.
• B. Use oral airway devices during seizures.
• C. Pad the side rails of the bed.
• D. Apply restraints during the seizure to prevent injury.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct intervention the nurse should include in the teaching is to pad the side rails of the bed. By padding the side rails, the nurse can help prevent injury if the patient experiences a seizure. Administering antiseizure medications promptly (Choice A) is typically the responsibility of a healthcare provider or according to a prescribed schedule. Using oral airway devices during seizures (Choice B) can pose risks and should be managed by healthcare professionals. Applying restraints during a seizure (Choice D) is not recommended as it can lead to further injury and complications.

3. A client gave birth 4 hours ago and is experiencing excessive vaginal bleeding. Which of the following actions should the nurse plan to take first?

• A. Elevate the client's legs to a 30° angle
• B. Insert an indwelling urinary catheter
• C. Massage the client's fundus
• D. Initiate an infusion of oxytocin

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is to massage the client's fundus first. Uterine atony is a common cause of postpartum hemorrhage, and massaging the fundus can help stimulate uterine contractions, which will assist in reducing bleeding. Elevating the client's legs to a 30° angle (Choice A) is not the priority in this situation as fundal massage takes precedence. Inserting an indwelling urinary catheter (Choice B) may be necessary but should not take precedence over managing the postpartum hemorrhage. Initiating an infusion of oxytocin (Choice D) is a valid intervention to address uterine atony, but massaging the fundus should come first to promote immediate contraction and control bleeding.

4. A nurse is caring for a client receiving corticosteroids. Which of the following should the nurse monitor?

• A. Blood glucose levels
• B. Blood pressure
• C. Serum potassium levels
• D. Both A and B

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When a client is receiving corticosteroids, the nurse should monitor both blood glucose levels and blood pressure. Corticosteroids can elevate blood glucose levels, leading to hyperglycemia, and may cause hypertension. Monitoring these parameters is essential to detect and address any potential adverse effects promptly. While monitoring serum potassium levels is important in some situations, it is not a primary concern when caring for a client receiving corticosteroids. Therefore, choices A and B are the most appropriate options for monitoring in this scenario, making option D the correct answer.

5. When educating a patient about gabapentin use, what should the nurse include?

• A. It can cause sedation
• B. It can be taken with alcohol
• C. It is a pain reliever
• D. It has no side effects

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'It can cause sedation.' Gabapentin is known to cause sedation, and patients should be advised about this side effect, especially regarding activities that require alertness. Choice B is incorrect because gabapentin should not be taken with alcohol as it can increase the risk of central nervous system depression. Choice C is incorrect because while gabapentin is used to treat nerve pain, it is not classified as a traditional pain reliever. Choice D is incorrect because gabapentin, like any medication, can have side effects, such as dizziness, drowsiness, and fatigue.

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