what is the best strategy for managing fatigue in a client who has had an acute myocardial infarction and is concerned about self care
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ATI PN Comprehensive Predictor 2020 Answers

1. What is the best strategy for managing fatigue in a client who has had an acute myocardial infarction and is concerned about self-care?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The best strategy for managing fatigue in a client who has had an acute myocardial infarction and is concerned about self-care is to encourage the client to gradually resume self-care tasks with frequent rest periods. This approach helps the client regain independence while managing fatigue effectively. Choice A is incorrect because complete rest without any self-care tasks may hinder recovery and independence. Choice C is not the best option as it does not promote the client's independence. Choice D, while involving family support, does not empower the client to regain self-care abilities.

2. A nurse is teaching a client who is to undergo radiation therapy for breast cancer about potential adverse effects. Which of the following adverse effects should the nurse include in the teaching?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct adverse effect that the nurse should include in the teaching is fatigue. Fatigue is a common side effect of radiation therapy, particularly with prolonged treatment. Constipation, hair loss, and weight gain are not typically associated with radiation therapy for breast cancer, making them incorrect choices. Fatigue can significantly impact a patient's quality of life during treatment and should be addressed proactively by healthcare providers.

3. When caring for a client with a wound infection, what should the nurse prioritize?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The nurse should prioritize performing a wound culture before administering antibiotics to ensure appropriate treatment. This step helps identify the specific infecting organism and its susceptibility to different antibiotics, guiding effective antibiotic therapy. Changing the dressing daily (Choice A) is important but comes after assessing the infection and initiating appropriate treatment. Cleansing the wound with an antiseptic solution (Choice B) and applying a wet-to-dry dressing (Choice C) are interventions that may be necessary but are secondary to determining the most suitable antibiotic therapy based on the wound culture results.

4. Which of the following findings should the nurse anticipate in the medical record of a client with a pressure ulcer?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Serum albumin level of 3 g/dL. A serum albumin level of 3 g/dL indicates poor nutrition, which is commonly seen in clients with pressure ulcers. Choice B, a Braden scale score of 20, is incorrect because a higher Braden scale score indicates a lower risk of developing pressure ulcers. Choice C, a Norton scale score of 18, is incorrect as it is a tool used to assess the risk of developing pressure ulcers, not a finding in a client with an existing pressure ulcer. Choice D, a hemoglobin level of 13 g/dL, is unrelated to pressure ulcers and does not directly reflect the nutritional status associated with this condition.

5. How should a healthcare professional assess a patient for potential deep vein thrombosis (DVT)?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: To assess a patient for potential deep vein thrombosis (DVT), healthcare professionals should look for unilateral leg swelling. This is a classic sign of DVT. While encouraging early mobilization is generally beneficial for preventing DVT, it is not a method of assessment. Checking for calf tenderness is also relevant but not as specific as unilateral leg swelling. Observing for redness and warmth can be signs of inflammation but are not as specific to DVT as unilateral leg swelling.

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