Nursing Elites

1. What are the signs and symptoms of a potential infection?

• A. Fever, chills, and increased heart rate
• B. Increased white blood cell count and fever
• C. Shortness of breath and confusion
• D. Sweating and low blood pressure

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Fever, chills, and increased heart rate are classic signs of an infection. These symptoms indicate the body's response to an invading pathogen. Choice B, 'Increased white blood cell count and fever,' is not a primary symptom that a person would typically notice themselves, and white blood cell count needs to be tested. Choice C, 'Shortness of breath and confusion,' may indicate other conditions like heart or lung issues rather than a general infection. Choice D, 'Sweating and low blood pressure,' are not specific to infections and can be caused by various factors like heat or dehydration.

2. A nurse at a long-term care facility is part of a team preparing a report on the quality of care at the facility. Which of the following information should the nurse recommend including in the report to demonstrate improvement in care quality?

• A. Increased admissions
• B. 12% fewer urinary tract infections
• C. Increased mortality rate
• D. No changes in staffing

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: '12% fewer urinary tract infections.' Tracking infections, such as UTIs, is crucial in assessing care quality improvements as the reduction in infections indicates better infection control practices and overall quality of care. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Increased admissions (Choice A) do not directly reflect improvements in care quality. Increased mortality rate (Choice C) is a negative outcome and demonstrates a decline in care quality. No changes in staffing (Choice D) do not provide direct evidence of care quality improvements.

3. A healthcare provider is reviewing the medical record of a client who has hypertension. Which of the following findings should the provider identify as a risk factor for this condition?

• A. Age 25 years
• B. Family history of hypotension
• C. Obesity
• D. History of hypotension

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Obesity. Obesity is a significant risk factor for hypertension due to its impact on the cardiovascular system. Obesity can lead to increased blood pressure due to the additional workload placed on the heart and blood vessels. Age alone does not necessarily predispose someone to hypertension, and a family history of hypotension or a personal history of hypotension would not increase the risk of developing hypertension. Family history of hypotension is not a known risk factor for hypertension, and a history of hypotension actually indicates low blood pressure, which is the opposite of hypertension.

4. After sustaining a closed head injury and numerous lacerations and abrasions to the face and neck, a five-year-old child is admitted to the emergency room. The client is unconscious and has minimal response to noxious stimuli. Which of the following assessments, if observed by the nurse three hours after admission, should be reported to the physician?

• A. The client has slight edema of the eyelids
• B. There is clear fluid draining from the client's right ear
• C. There is some bleeding from the child's lacerations
• D. The client withdraws in response to painful stimuli

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Clear fluid draining from the ear can indicate cerebrospinal fluid leakage, which is a serious concern after a head injury. This leakage can signify a skull fracture or damage to the meninges, potentially leading to infection. Therefore, it should be reported immediately for further evaluation and management. Choices A, C, and D are typical findings after head trauma and are not as urgent as the presence of clear fluid draining from the ear.

5. A healthcare professional is reviewing the laboratory report of a client who is receiving filgrastim. Which of the following laboratory values should the healthcare professional monitor to determine the effectiveness of the treatment?

• A. WBC count.
• B. Serum potassium.
• C. Hemoglobin level.
• D. Serum creatinine.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Filgrastim works by stimulating the production of white blood cells. Therefore, monitoring the white blood cell (WBC) count is essential to assess the effectiveness of the treatment. Choice B, serum potassium, is not directly affected by filgrastim therapy. Choice C, hemoglobin level, is important but not the primary indicator of filgrastim's effectiveness. Choice D, serum creatinine, is unrelated to the action of filgrastim and would not reflect its effectiveness.

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