ATI LPN
ATI PN Comprehensive Predictor 2020 Answers
1. What are the signs and symptoms of a potential infection?
- A. Fever, chills, and increased heart rate
- B. Increased white blood cell count and fever
- C. Shortness of breath and confusion
- D. Sweating and low blood pressure
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Fever, chills, and increased heart rate are classic signs of an infection. These symptoms indicate the body's response to an invading pathogen. Choice B, 'Increased white blood cell count and fever,' is not a primary symptom that a person would typically notice themselves, and white blood cell count needs to be tested. Choice C, 'Shortness of breath and confusion,' may indicate other conditions like heart or lung issues rather than a general infection. Choice D, 'Sweating and low blood pressure,' are not specific to infections and can be caused by various factors like heat or dehydration.
2. When managing a physically assaultive client, the nurse's INITIAL priority is to
- A. Restrict the client to the room
- B. Place the client under one-to-one supervision
- C. Restore the client's self-control and prevent further loss of control
- D. Clear the immediate area of other clients to prevent harm
Correct answer: C
Rationale: When dealing with a physically assaultive client, the initial priority is to focus on restoring the client's self-control and preventing further escalation. Restricting the client to the room (choice A) may escalate the situation and is not the initial priority. Placing the client under one-to-one supervision (choice B) is important but comes after ensuring the client's self-control. Clearing the immediate area of other clients (choice D) is essential for safety but is not the initial priority when compared to restoring the client's self-control.
3. A nurse is assisting with the admission of a client who has major depressive disorder. Which of the following communication techniques should the nurse use to establish a trusting relationship with the client?
- A. Offer medical advice
- B. Offer general leads
- C. Ask open-ended questions
- D. Use assertive communication
Correct answer: B
Rationale: In the context of establishing a trusting relationship with a client who has major depressive disorder, offering general leads is the most appropriate communication technique. General leads encourage clients to express themselves by providing subtle prompts or cues, which can help build rapport and trust. Offering medical advice (Choice A) is not suitable as it may come across as imposing and could hinder the establishment of trust. Asking open-ended questions (Choice C) is beneficial for eliciting detailed responses but may not be as effective at initially establishing trust as general leads. Using assertive communication (Choice D) can be perceived as aggressive and intimidating, which is not conducive to building a trusting relationship with a client who has major depressive disorder.
4. What are the risk factors for deep vein thrombosis (DVT) and how can it be prevented?
- A. Immobility and oral contraceptive use
- B. Pregnancy and smoking
- C. Obesity and varicose veins
- D. Hypertension and high cholesterol
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Immobility and oral contraceptive use. Immobility and oral contraceptive use are significant risk factors for deep vein thrombosis (DVT). Immobility leads to blood stasis, increasing the risk of clot formation, while oral contraceptive use can promote hypercoagulability. Prevention strategies for DVT include promoting mobility to enhance blood circulation and using anticoagulants to prevent clot formation. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. While pregnancy and smoking can increase the risk of DVT, they are not the specific factors mentioned in the question. Similarly, obesity and varicose veins, as well as hypertension and high cholesterol, are not the primary risk factors associated with DVT.
5. What are the key differences between systolic and diastolic heart failure?
- A. Systolic: Reduced ejection fraction; Diastolic: Preserved ejection fraction
- B. Systolic: Preserved ejection fraction; Diastolic: Reduced ejection fraction
- C. Systolic: Right-sided heart failure; Diastolic: Left-sided heart failure
- D. Systolic: Pulmonary congestion; Diastolic: Systemic congestion
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Systolic heart failure is characterized by reduced ejection fraction, meaning the heart is not pumping effectively. Diastolic heart failure, on the other hand, is characterized by preserved ejection fraction, indicating that the heart has difficulty relaxing and filling properly. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not accurately describe the key differences between systolic and diastolic heart failure.
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