Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is caring for a client who has a prescription for chlorothiazide to treat hypertension. The nurse should plan to monitor the client for which of the following adverse effects?

• A. Thrombophlebitis
• B. Hyperactive reflexes
• C. Muscle weakness
• D. Hypoglycemia

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Muscle weakness. Chlorothiazide, a thiazide diuretic, can lead to hypokalemia, which can cause muscle weakness. Thrombophlebitis (choice A) is not typically associated with chlorothiazide use. Hyperactive reflexes (choice B) and hypoglycemia (choice D) are also not commonly linked to this medication. Therefore, monitoring for muscle weakness is crucial when a client is prescribed chlorothiazide.

2. A client with ulcerative colitis has been prescribed sulfasalazine. The nurse should instruct the client to monitor for which of the following adverse effects of this medication?

• A. Jaundice
• B. Constipation
• C. Oral candidiasis
• D. Sedation

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Jaundice. Sulfasalazine can cause liver damage as a possible adverse effect, which can manifest as jaundice. Monitoring for jaundice is crucial to detect liver-related adverse effects early. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Constipation, oral candidiasis, and sedation are not typically associated with sulfasalazine use. Therefore, the nurse should focus on educating the client specifically about monitoring for jaundice.

3. When administering subcutaneous epinephrine for a client experiencing anaphylaxis, what adverse effect should the nurse monitor for?

• A. Hypotension
• B. Hyperthermia
• C. Hypoglycemia
• D. Tachycardia

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct adverse effect to monitor for when administering subcutaneous epinephrine for anaphylaxis is tachycardia. Epinephrine stimulates adrenergic receptors, leading to an increased heart rate (tachycardia). Hypotension (Choice A) is less likely due to the vasoconstrictive effects of epinephrine. Hyperthermia (Choice B) and hypoglycemia (Choice C) are not commonly associated with epinephrine administration for anaphylaxis.

4. A client with rheumatoid arthritis is prescribed long-term prednisone therapy. What adverse effect should the client monitor for according to the nurse's instruction?

• A. Stress fractures
• B. Orthostatic hypotension
• C. Gingival ulcerations
• D. Weight loss

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Stress fractures. Long-term prednisone therapy can lead to osteoporosis, which increases the risk of stress fractures. Option B, orthostatic hypotension, is not a common adverse effect associated with prednisone use. Option C, gingival ulcerations, is more commonly associated with conditions like periodontal disease or poor oral hygiene rather than prednisone therapy. Option D, weight loss, is not a typical adverse effect of prednisone; in fact, weight gain is more common due to prednisone's impact on metabolism.

5. A client with peptic ulcer disease reports a headache. Which of the following medications should the nurse plan to administer?

• A. Ibuprofen
• B. Naproxen
• C. Aspirin
• D. Acetaminophen

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Acetaminophen is the preferred analgesic for clients with peptic ulcer disease because it does not cause gastrointestinal irritation, unlike Ibuprofen, Naproxen, and Aspirin, which can exacerbate peptic ulcer symptoms and lead to gastrointestinal complications.

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