ATI LPN
PN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment 2020 A
1. A nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client who has heart failure and a new prescription for digoxin 0.215 mg PO daily and furosemide 20 mg PO daily. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?
- A. I know that blurred vision is something I will expect to happen while taking digoxin.
- B. I will measure my urine output each day and document it in my diary.
- C. I will skip a dose of my digoxin if my resting heart rate is below 72 beats per minute.
- D. I will eat fruits and vegetables that have high potassium content every day.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Clients taking digoxin and furosemide are at risk for hypokalemia. Eating potassium-rich foods can help maintain normal potassium levels.
2. A nurse is caring for a client with dementia who frequently attempts to get out of bed unsupervised. What is the best intervention?
- A. Use restraints to prevent the client from getting out of bed
- B. Encourage family members to stay with the client at all times
- C. Use a bed exit alarm system
- D. Keep the client's room dark and quiet to reduce stimulation
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The best intervention for a client with dementia who frequently attempts to get out of bed unsupervised is to use a bed exit alarm system (Choice C). A bed exit alarm can alert staff when the client tries to leave the bed, helping to prevent falls. Using restraints (Choice A) is not recommended as it can lead to physical and psychological harm. While having family members present (Choice B) can be beneficial, it may not be feasible at all times. Keeping the client's room dark and quiet (Choice D) may not address the immediate safety concern of the client attempting to get out of bed.
3. A new parent reports to the nurse that the baby looks cross-eyed several times a day. The nurse teaches the parents that this finding should resolve in how long?
- A. 2 months
- B. 2 weeks
- C. 1 year
- D. 4 months
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Transient strabismus, causing the baby to look cross-eyed, is due to poor neuromuscular control of the eye muscles. This condition typically resolves on its own within 3 to 4 months as the infant's neuromuscular control improves. Parents should be reassured that this is a common and temporary issue in infants. Choice A is incorrect as it is too long for the resolution of transient strabismus. Choice B is incorrect as 2 weeks is too short for resolution. Choice C is incorrect as 1 year is too long for transient strabismus to resolve.
4. A client has a prescription for a 24-hour urine collection. Which of the following actions should be taken by the healthcare provider?
- A. Discard the first voiding.
- B. Keep the urine at room temperature.
- C. Collect the first voiding.
- D. Keep the urine in a sterile container.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Discarding the first voiding is necessary when initiating a 24-hour urine collection to ensure that the collection starts with an empty bladder. This step helps in obtaining an accurate measurement of substances excreted over the 24-hour period without any carryover from the previous voids. Keeping the urine at room temperature or in a sterile container is not specific to the initiation of the collection. Therefore, the correct action is to discard the first voiding. Choice B is incorrect because keeping urine at room temperature is important for some tests, but it is not specific to the initiation of a 24-hour urine collection. Choice C is incorrect because collecting the first voiding would lead to inaccurate results as the bladder is not empty at the start. Choice D is incorrect because while keeping urine in a sterile container is generally a good practice, it is not a specific step for initiating a 24-hour urine collection.
5. A nurse is assessing a client with chronic kidney disease. Which of the following findings should the nurse monitor?
- A. Hypokalemia
- B. Fluid overload
- C. Decreased blood pressure
- D. Increased appetite
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Fluid overload. Clients with chronic kidney disease are prone to fluid overload due to impaired kidney function. The kidneys may not effectively regulate fluid balance, leading to fluid retention. Monitoring for signs of fluid overload, such as edema, hypertension, and shortness of breath, is crucial. Choice A, Hypokalemia, is less likely in chronic kidney disease as the kidneys often have difficulty excreting potassium, leading to hyperkalemia. Decreased blood pressure (Choice C) is not a common finding in chronic kidney disease unless complications like volume depletion occur. Increased appetite (Choice D) is not typically associated with chronic kidney disease; in fact, many clients may experience a decreased appetite due to various factors such as uremia and dietary restrictions.