Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client who has heart failure and a new prescription for digoxin 0.215 mg PO daily and furosemide 20 mg PO daily. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?

• A. I know that blurred vision is something I will expect to happen while taking digoxin.
• B. I will measure my urine output each day and document it in my diary.
• C. I will skip a dose of my digoxin if my resting heart rate is below 72 beats per minute.
• D. I will eat fruits and vegetables that have high potassium content every day.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Clients taking digoxin and furosemide are at risk for hypokalemia. Eating potassium-rich foods can help maintain normal potassium levels.

2. A nurse is caring for an older adult client who has a new prescription for amitriptyline to treat depression. Which of the following diagnostic tests should the nurse plan to perform prior to starting the client on this medication?

• A. Hearing examination
• B. Glucose tolerance test
• C. Electrocardiogram
• D. Pulmonary function tests

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Electrocardiogram. Amitriptyline can cause cardiac arrhythmias, so an electrocardiogram is necessary before starting treatment. A hearing examination (choice A) is not required before initiating amitriptyline. A glucose tolerance test (choice B) is not indicated for starting this medication. Pulmonary function tests (choice D) are not necessary before initiating amitriptyline for depression.

3. A client at 28 weeks of gestation is experiencing preterm labor. Which of the following medications should the nurse plan to administer?

• A. Oxytocin
• B. Nifedipine
• C. Dinoprostone
• D. Misoprostol

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Nifedipine is the correct choice because it is a calcium channel blocker that helps relax the uterus and stop preterm labor. Oxytocin (Choice A) is used to induce labor, not to stop preterm labor. Dinoprostone (Choice C) and Misoprostol (Choice D) are prostaglandins used to induce labor and ripen the cervix, not to stop preterm labor.

4. A nurse is caring for a client who has a new diagnosis of oral candidiasis after taking tetracycline for 7 days. The nurse should recognize that candidiasis is a manifestation of which of the following adverse effects?

• A. Allergic response
• B. Superinfection
• C. Renal toxicity
• D. Hepatotoxicity

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Candidiasis is a type of superinfection that can occur when antibiotics, like tetracycline, disrupt the normal flora, allowing overgrowth of fungi. Option A, allergic response, is incorrect because candidiasis is not typically an allergic reaction. Option C, renal toxicity, and option D, hepatotoxicity, are incorrect as they refer to adverse effects on the kidneys and liver, respectively, which are not directly related to the development of candidiasis.

5. A nurse is caring for an older adult client who has a prescription for zolpidem at bedtime to promote sleep. The nurse should plan to monitor the client for which of the following adverse effects?

• A. Ecchymosis
• B. Decreased urine output
• C. Increased blood pressure
• D. Dizziness

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Dizziness. Zolpidem is known to cause dizziness, especially in older adults. This adverse effect can increase the risk of falls and injuries in the elderly population. Monitoring for dizziness is crucial to ensure patient safety. Choice A, Ecchymosis, is the development of bruising and is not a common adverse effect of zolpidem. Choices B and C, Decreased urine output and Increased blood pressure, are not typically associated with zolpidem use. Therefore, they are incorrect choices in this scenario.

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