Nursing Elites

1. How should a healthcare professional assess and manage a patient with dehydration?

• A. Assess skin turgor and monitor intake/output
• B. Encourage oral fluids only
• C. Administer IV fluids immediately
• D. Check for electrolyte imbalance and administer fluids

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct way to assess and manage a patient with dehydration is to assess skin turgor and monitor intake/output. Skin turgor assessment helps in evaluating the degree of dehydration, while monitoring intake/output aids in maintaining fluid balance. Encouraging oral fluids only (Choice B) may not be sufficient for moderate to severe dehydration as patients may need intravenous fluids (IV) to rapidly rehydrate. Administering IV fluids immediately (Choice C) is not always the first step unless the patient is severely dehydrated. Checking for electrolyte imbalance and administering fluids (Choice D) is important but comes after assessing skin turgor and intake/output in the management of dehydration.

2. A healthcare provider is reviewing the medical record of a client who has coronary artery disease (CAD) and a prescription for aspirin. Which of the following findings should the healthcare provider report to the provider?

• A. History of gastrointestinal bleeding
• B. History of asthma
• C. History of liver disease
• D. History of hypertension

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A history of gastrointestinal bleeding is a critical finding to report to the healthcare provider because it is a contraindication for aspirin use in individuals with CAD. Aspirin can further increase the risk of bleeding in individuals with a history of gastrointestinal bleeding. Choices B, C, and D are not directly contraindications for aspirin use in this scenario. Asthma, liver disease, and hypertension are not typically contraindications for prescribing aspirin to patients with CAD.

3. What are common risk factors for urinary tract infections (UTIs)?

• A. Poor hygiene and dehydration
• B. Increased sexual activity and pregnancy
• C. Use of urinary catheters and prolonged bed rest
• D. Family history and obesity

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Poor hygiene and dehydration are common risk factors for urinary tract infections (UTIs). While choices B, C, and D may play a role in certain cases, poor hygiene and dehydration are more universally recognized as key factors contributing to UTIs. Increased sexual activity and pregnancy (choice B) can also increase the risk of UTIs, but they are not as universal as poor hygiene and dehydration. Choices C and D, the use of urinary catheters and prolonged bed rest, and family history and obesity, respectively, are risk factors for UTIs but are not as commonly associated as poor hygiene and dehydration.

4. A nurse is caring for a client with a chest tube post-surgery. What is the most important assessment?

• A. Ensure the chest tube is clamped periodically
• B. Check for air leaks and ensure proper chest tube function
• C. Encourage deep breathing and coughing every 2 hours
• D. Ensure the client is positioned in a high Fowler's position

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Check for air leaks and ensure proper chest tube function.' This is the most important assessment for a client with a chest tube post-surgery because it ensures that the chest tube is functioning properly. Checking for air leaks helps prevent complications such as pneumothorax or hemothorax. Choice A is incorrect because clamping the chest tube periodically can lead to serious complications and should not be done unless specifically ordered by a healthcare provider. Choice C is important for promoting lung expansion but is not the most critical assessment related to the chest tube. Choice D is also important for respiratory function but is not the priority when assessing a chest tube post-surgery.

5. A healthcare professional is collecting data from a client who has iron deficiency anemia. Which of the following findings should the healthcare professional expect?

• A. Increased energy
• B. Easy bruising
• C. Pale conjunctiva
• D. Weight gain

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Pale conjunctiva is a common sign of iron deficiency anemia due to reduced hemoglobin levels. This results in decreased oxygen-carrying capacity, leading to tissue hypoxia and pallor. 'Increased energy' (choice A) is not typically associated with iron deficiency anemia, as fatigue and weakness are common symptoms. 'Easy bruising' (choice B) is more characteristic of platelet disorders or vitamin deficiencies rather than iron deficiency anemia. 'Weight gain' (choice D) is not a typical finding in iron deficiency anemia; in fact, weight loss is more common due to decreased appetite and overall weakness.

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