Nursing Elites

1. How should a healthcare professional assess and manage a patient with dehydration?

• A. Assess skin turgor and monitor intake/output
• B. Encourage oral fluids only
• C. Administer IV fluids immediately
• D. Check for electrolyte imbalance and administer fluids

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct way to assess and manage a patient with dehydration is to assess skin turgor and monitor intake/output. Skin turgor assessment helps in evaluating the degree of dehydration, while monitoring intake/output aids in maintaining fluid balance. Encouraging oral fluids only (Choice B) may not be sufficient for moderate to severe dehydration as patients may need intravenous fluids (IV) to rapidly rehydrate. Administering IV fluids immediately (Choice C) is not always the first step unless the patient is severely dehydrated. Checking for electrolyte imbalance and administering fluids (Choice D) is important but comes after assessing skin turgor and intake/output in the management of dehydration.

2. A client with dementia is at risk of falls. Which intervention should the nurse implement to ensure safety?

• A. Use restraints to prevent the client from leaving the bed
• B. Use a bed exit alarm to notify staff when the client tries to leave the bed
• C. Encourage frequent ambulation with assistance
• D. Raise all four side rails to prevent falls

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct intervention for a client with dementia at risk of falls is to use a bed exit alarm to notify staff when the client tries to leave the bed. This intervention helps prevent falls while still allowing some freedom of movement. Choice A is incorrect because using restraints can lead to complications and is considered a form of restraint which should be avoided. Choice C is not suitable for a client at high risk of falls due to dementia as it may increase the risk of falls. Choice D is not recommended as raising all four side rails can be considered a form of physical restraint and may not be the best approach to prevent falls in a client with dementia.

3. A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving intermittent enteral tube feedings. Which of the following places the client at risk for aspiration?

• A. A history of gastroesophageal reflux disease.
• B. Receiving a formula with high osmolarity.
• C. Sitting in a high-Fowler's position during the feeding.
• D. A residual of 65 mL 1 hour postprandial.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: A history of gastroesophageal reflux disease. Clients with gastroesophageal reflux disease have a higher risk of aspiration during tube feeding due to the potential for reflux of stomach contents into the lungs. This increases the risk of aspiration pneumonia. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. High osmolarity formulas may cause diarrhea but do not directly increase the risk of aspiration. Sitting in a high-Fowler's position actually reduces the risk of aspiration by promoting proper digestion and reducing the chance of regurgitation. A residual of 65 mL 1 hour postprandial is within an acceptable range and does not directly indicate a risk for aspiration.

4. A client with diabetes is being discharged. What is an essential teaching point?

• A. Monitor blood sugar levels once a week
• B. Instruct the client to administer insulin before meals
• C. Teach the client to exercise regularly to maintain glucose control
• D. Administer oral hypoglycemics as needed

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Instructing the client to administer insulin before meals is a crucial teaching point for a client with diabetes. This action ensures proper glucose management by helping to control blood sugar levels. Monitoring blood sugar levels once a week (Choice A) may not be frequent enough to manage diabetes effectively. While regular exercise (Choice C) is beneficial for glucose control, the immediate administration of insulin is more critical at the time of discharge. Administering oral hypoglycemics as needed (Choice D) is inappropriate as it does not address the need for insulin administration for a client being discharged.

5. A healthcare professional is reviewing the medical record of a client who is receiving furosemide. Which of the following laboratory values should the healthcare professional monitor while the client is taking this medication?

• A. Sodium
• B. Glucose
• C. Potassium
• D. Calcium

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Potassium. Furosemide is a diuretic that can cause potassium depletion due to increased urinary excretion. Monitoring potassium levels is crucial to prevent hypokalemia, which can lead to serious complications such as cardiac arrhythmias. Sodium (choice A) levels are not typically affected by furosemide. Glucose (choice B) monitoring is important with other medications like corticosteroids but is not directly related to furosemide use. Calcium (choice D) levels are not significantly impacted by furosemide.

Similar Questions