a nurse is caring for a client who is at 39 weeks of gestation and is in active labor the nurse locates the fetal heart tones above the clients umbili
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ATI Maternal Newborn Proctored

1. A client who is at 39 weeks of gestation and is in active labor has fetal heart tones located above the umbilicus at midline. The fetus is likely in which of the following positions?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Fetal heart tones above the umbilicus at midline are indicative of a breech presentation, specifically a frank breech position. In a frank breech position, the baby's buttocks are presenting first, which aligns with the fetal heart tones being above the umbilicus. This position indicates that the baby is not in the normal head-down position for birth, which can impact the delivery process and may require specific interventions. Cephalic presentation (Choice A) is the normal head-down position for birth, transverse lie (Choice B) is when the baby is positioned horizontally in the uterus, and posterior position (Choice C) refers to the baby's back being positioned towards the mother's back.

2. A client who is at 42 weeks gestation and in labor asks the nurse what to expect because the baby is postmature. Which of the following statements should the nurse make?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: 'Your baby's skin will have a leathery appearance.' Postmature infants, born after 42 weeks of gestation, may have a leathery appearance of the skin due to prolonged exposure to amniotic fluid. This occurs as the protective vernix caseosa is shed, and the skin loses its protective covering, leading to a wrinkled and dry appearance. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Excess baby fat is not a typical characteristic of postmature infants. Flat areola without breast buds and the ability of the baby's heels to easily move to his ears are not associated with postmaturity.

3. During ambulation to the bathroom, a postpartum client experiences a gush of dark red blood that soon stops. On data collection, a nurse finds the uterus to be firm, midline, and at the level of the umbilicus. Which of the following findings should the nurse interpret this data as being?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The nurse should interpret this data as a normal postpartum discharge of lochia. Lochia is the normal vaginal discharge after childbirth, and the gush of dark red blood upon ambulation is typical due to the pooling of blood in the vagina when lying down, which is then released upon standing. The firm, midline uterus at the level of the umbilicus indicates normal involution of the uterus postpartum. Therefore, this scenario is consistent with the expected postpartum physiological changes rather than complications like hematoma, lacerations, or abnormal excessive bleeding. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because the described findings are more indicative of normal postpartum processes rather than complications such as vaginal hematoma, lacerations, or excessive bleeding.

4. A client who is at 24 weeks of gestation and reports daily mild headaches is being cared for by a nurse. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include in the plan of care?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Mild headaches during pregnancy can be common and are often related to stress and tension. Recommending conscious relaxation techniques daily can help to relieve tension, reduce stress, and alleviate headaches without the need for medication, which is safer during pregnancy. Choice A is incorrect as ibuprofen is not recommended during pregnancy due to potential risks to the fetus. Choice C is incorrect because ginseng tea is not recommended during pregnancy as it may have adverse effects. Choice D is incorrect as soaking in a hot bath with a water temperature of 105°F can raise the body temperature, which is not safe during pregnancy.

5. A healthcare provider is assisting with the care for a client who has a prescription for magnesium sulfate. The provider should recognize that which of the following are contraindications for the use of this medication? (Select all that apply)

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, 'All of the Above.' Magnesium sulfate should not be used in cases of fetal distress, vaginal bleeding, or cervical dilation greater than 6 cm. These conditions can be exacerbated by the administration of magnesium sulfate, leading to further complications for the client. Choice A, fetal distress, is a contraindication because magnesium sulfate can further affect the fetal heart rate. Choice B, cervical dilation greater than 6 cm, is a contraindication as magnesium sulfate can potentially suppress uterine contractions, prolonging labor. Choice C, vaginal bleeding, is a contraindication as magnesium sulfate can further increase bleeding tendencies.

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