a nurse is caring for a client prescribed lisinopril which of the following medication interactions should the nurse instruct this client about
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PN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment 2020 A with NGN

1. A nurse is caring for a client prescribed lisinopril. Which of the following medication interactions should the nurse instruct this client about?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Potassium supplements. Lisinopril, an ACE inhibitor, can increase potassium levels in the body. Therefore, the nurse should instruct the client to avoid potassium supplements to prevent hyperkalemia, a potentially dangerous condition. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not have significant interactions with lisinopril that would lead to adverse effects like hyperkalemia.

2. A nurse is caring for a client who has a prescription for vancomycin 1 g IV every 12 hours. The client is scheduled to have the morning dose at 0700. The nurse should schedule the trough level to be drawn at which of the following times?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The trough level of vancomycin should be drawn just before the next dose is administered, typically about 30 minutes before the scheduled dose. Since the morning dose is at 0700, the trough level should be drawn at 1800. This timing ensures an accurate measurement of the lowest concentration of the drug in the client's system before the next dose is given. Choice A (2100) is too close to the next dose, choice B (900) is too early, and choice C (1300) is also too far from the next dose.

3. While caring for a client in active labor, a nurse notes late decelerations in the FHR on the external fetal monitor. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct initial action for the nurse to take is to change the client's position. This intervention can alleviate pressure on the umbilical cord, potentially improving fetal oxygenation and addressing the underlying cause of late decelerations. Palpating the uterus to assess for tachysystole or increasing the IV infusion rate are not the first-line interventions for addressing late decelerations. Administering oxygen at a high flow rate via a nonrebreather mask may be necessary but is not the priority action in this situation.

4. A nurse is caring for a client who is experiencing preterm labor and has a new prescription for terbutaline. Which of the following findings is a contraindication for the administration of this medication?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A, heart disease. Terbutaline is contraindicated in clients with heart disease because it can lead to tachycardia and other cardiac complications due to its beta-agonist properties. Choice B, cervical dilation of 2 cm, is not a contraindication for terbutaline administration in preterm labor. Choice C, gestational age of 34 weeks, does not contraindicate the use of terbutaline for preterm labor. Choice D, allergy to penicillin, is not related to the contraindications of terbutaline.

5. Which of the following interventions is most appropriate for a client with hyperemesis gravidarum?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Administer intravenous fluids. Hyperemesis gravidarum is severe, persistent nausea and vomiting during pregnancy that can lead to dehydration and electrolyte imbalances. The priority intervention is to administer intravenous fluids to maintain hydration. Encouraging high-calorie meals (Choice A) may exacerbate symptoms due to increased gastric stimulation. Providing frequent small meals (Choice C) may not be effective in severe cases where continuous vomiting occurs. Limiting fluid intake (Choice D) is contraindicated in hyperemesis gravidarum as dehydration is a significant concern.

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